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In the Name of God بسم الله

Need explanation of Quranic verse

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In verse 4:24, "Also ˹forbidden are˺ married women—except ˹female˺ captives in your possession." Why does Allah(سُبْحَانَهُ وَ تَعَالَى) allow Muslim soldiers to kidnap innocent women and take them as captives? I also assume that marrying captives will have the same rules as any other (ex: consent). Please explain this verse to me

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2 hours ago, smma said:

except ˹female˺ captives in your possession

From where you got the translation? 

Because it is wrong. The right translation says:

'except those whom your right hands possess'

So, your question becomes invalid in this way.

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23 hours ago, Zainuu said:

From where you got the translation? 

Because it is wrong. The right translation says:

'except those whom your right hands possess'

So, your question becomes invalid in this 

Slaves are procured through a similar method (invading villages and kidnapping) so my question still stands 

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1 hour ago, smma said:

Slaves are procured through a similar method (invading villages and kidnapping) so my question still stands 

No that's not necessary. It happens today but slavery was a norm at that time and it's not necessary that it happened through kixldnapping and invasion. It actually never happened in the context of Islam.

Regardless, I will share the tafsir to make my point more clear. 

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On 11/23/2020 at 6:54 PM, smma said:

In verse 4:24, "Also ˹forbidden are˺ married women—except ˹female˺ captives in your possession." Why does Allah(سُبْحَانَهُ وَ تَعَالَى) allow Muslim soldiers to kidnap innocent women and take them as captives? I also assume that marrying captives will have the same rules as any other (ex: consent). Please explain this verse to me

It also says the same thing in Surah al-Ma'arij, verse 30. 

Allah allows this because what were to happen if you were to leave them in the desert or the place where there are no longer men to defend them and their children? You can infer what will happen - and it is not pretty.

Second, they become our duty and obligation. You cannot force them to have sex [just as you cannot force your wife to have sex] nor force them to do things for you. The reason why Allah does not use the word "slave" in Arabic when referring to the female captives is because they are not slaves and you do not own them - rather, you must take care of them. 

Marrying captives is not a thing because you must free them and then marry them, as that is the rule. Then, they are no longer captives and rather free people whom are not under the protection of anyone.

A further, better explanation.

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Ok, while brother @Zainuu is posting his tafseer, think about it for a second. You are a free woman or a female slave in 7th century Hejaz. Your father, husband, or current master or possibly both, have just been killed in a battle, where they took up arms against the Prophet of Allah's army. Probably where they (father/husband/master) were the aggressors, since the Holy Prophet (صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم) just didn't randomly invade and loot and plunder (naudhubillah). You are now left with no one to financially support you. Since it's unrealistic for you to work for a living in that society, what are your future prospects?

If you consider numerous possibilities, being captured by the victorious army, being clothed and fed and being given a place to live, in exchange for being a soldiers slave, isn't the worst possible thing that can happen to you.

You can of course refuse relations, along with the right to basic financial support from said soldier, and looking forward to a life of a widow with no one to support her.

There have been a lot of harsh realities throughout history, and with our modern comforts and morals and standards, it can seem hard to stomach them.

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It is beyond me that how can a translator put his own interpretation while translating a text. Intepretations and understandings must be kept aside and brought up in Tafseer. Translation should be parallel and straight. 

This is from Al-Mizan by Allama Tabatabai (رضي الله عنه) where he clearly denies the interpretation of the verse being about female captives.

Quote

Consequently, the exceptional clause, ‘‘except those whom your right hands possess’’; will exclude one’s married slave girl from this prohibition. It has been narrated in traditions that the master of a married slave woman may take away that woman from her husband, keep her untouched for the prescribed term, then have sexual relation with her, and thereafter return her to her husband.
Some exegetes have opined: The exception, ‘‘except those whom your right hands possess’’, means, except those chaste women whom you possess by marriage or as slave. Possession thus implies the right of having sexual pleasure. But this opinion is not correct, because:
First: It interprets the word, al-muhsanāt ( الَْ= َا ُت ُمْح َصن married women) as chaste women, and you have already seen how wrong that interpretation is.
Second: The Qur’ān always uses the phrase, ‘‘those whom your right hands possess’’, for slaves; not for any other right of benefitting from something.
Likewise, someone has said: The phrase refers to unbeliever married
women imprisoned in jihād. A tradition from Abū Sa‘īd al-Khudrī is offered in support, in which he says: ‘‘This verse was revealed about the captives of Awtās, where the Muslims had captured some women of the polytheists, whose husbands were in (their) non-Muslim region. When this verse was revealed, an announcer announced on behalf of the Messenger of Allāh ((صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم).a.) ‘Be careful! The pregnant ones should not be approached for sexual intercourse until they deliver, nor the non-pregnant ones until they complete (their) waiting period.’ ’’
But apart from weakness of this tradition, it amounts to particularization of the verse without a particularizer. Therefore, only the meaning given by us is to the point.

 

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