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Clarification on Qur’an on Torah Injil

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On 9/1/2018 at 9:20 PM, kingkhanwc said:

Aside from the verses stating corruption, when the Qur’an says to the ahle ketab to uphold the law of the previous books to them at that time, is it saying to do so with the corrupt scriptures ? 

We're still looking for the verses stating actual corruption.

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On 9/5/2018 at 5:50 AM, John_313 said:

Methodological errors;



"And unto thee have We revealed the Scripture with the truth, confirming whatever Scripture was before it..."

"And We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow in their footsteps, confirming that which was before him in the Torah, and We bestowed on him the Gospel wherein is guidance and a light, confirming that which was before it in the Torah - a guidance and an admonition unto those who ward off (evil)."


How can the Torah and Injeel , during the time lapse of an oral event benefit anybody now? How can millennia old conversations be confirmed? How could you ever find this guidance and a light? Last time somebody sat down and had a talk with Moses or Jesus was a long time ago. Nobody remembers that day, nor what was said unless it was recorded.

The Quran speaks of " The books of Moses" These books are the Torah, they are records of the revelations as well as the life and times of the Prophets. They were available at the time of Prophet Muhammad. 

The Quran also says "Muhammad is found written in the Torah and the Gospel" (which are) with them. Not only evidence Torah and the Gospel are to be understood as written form, but also states these books were available at the time of Prophet Muhammad. 

Jesus says, "I have come to you...attesting to (the truth of) what is between my hands of the Torah. Can't hold oral between your hands.

It also begs for an answer as to why the Jews would come to Muhammad for a decision while they had their own Torah, obviously available.

Muslim Scholars have been looking for centuries for ways to skip around their own scripture to discredit the "Bible"  by presenting "past scripture" as;  Past past scripture, (so past it's nowhere to be found, sorry, too late, the Christians hacked what was left, it's all gone, only fairy tales left), kinda past scriptures. 

Why would Gabriel take time to talk about the obsolete, and why weren't the so called corruptions noted and corrected. 

The rebuttal ends in the middle of the first paragraph.


If the bible is true, what follows is that the Quran confirms a book yet contradicts its doctrines.

Slight correction, contradicts the doctrines of evolved Christianity presumably derived from the book.

Fair enough?

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