Mutah with no intercourse

[fatma93]

am i allowed to do mutah but agree with no intercourse? and can i do this without my fathers permission

[notme]

Yes, this condition is allowed. 

No, not without permission. If you've never been married before, you will need your father's permission for marriage, regardless of imposed conditions.

[Natsu]

41 minutes ago, notme said:

Yes, this condition is allowed. 

No, not without permission. If you've never been married before, you will need your father's permission for marriage, regardless of imposed conditions.

A question 

what if the girl’s parents are dead or what if they dont care about the girl at all?

i mean there are parents who just beat their children and don’t care about the consequences 

[notme]

7 hours ago, Natsu said:

A question 

what if the girl’s parents are dead or what if they dont care about the girl at all?

i mean there are parents who just beat their children and don’t care about the consequences 

That's not relevant here, however, in case someone who is reading this is a virgin orphan, I'll answer.  Her guardian should be asked for marriage permission.  If she has no guardian she can decide for herself.  

As for parents who beat their children, if she is still in their custody, they should be asked for permission.

As for parents who don't care about the consequences of mutah, the man needs to ask their permission anyway.  If they don't care, he can be pretty certain they'll give the answer he wants to hear.

However, if the parents reject a suitable suitor for un-Islamic reasons, she can ask a local trusted aalim to intervene with her parents on her behalf, or even in extreme cases, elope.  Parents are not allowed to oppress their children and need to consider what the child wants and needs, not only what the parent wants or needs.

[Ron_Burgundy]

2 hours ago, fatma93 said:

am i allowed to do mutah but agree with no intercourse? and can i do this without my fathers permission

Why do you wanna do mutah?

[Ahmed_516478]

 It depends on your marja'. According to most contemporary maraji' (including Sistani, Khamenei, Makarem Shirazi, Sadiq Shirazi, and others) a virgin girl requires her guardian's permission to marry. While Sadiq Rohani and Ja'far Subhani  do not require a virgin girl to obtain her guardian's permission provided that she is baligha rashida. 

[AmirAlmuminin Lover]

Salaam Alaykum

Yes you can put this condition on Mutah, but if the girl is virgin and had not been divorced before, father permission is NECESSARY.

Edited June 9, 2018 by AmirAlmuminin Lover

[Haji 2003]

I thought this was an interesting topic. Aside from what the OP was asking about, what are the issues around this, because it's possible it may be useful in all sorts of social, medical and health situations, e.g. nursing care for the elderly etc. Or is that not the case?

[AkhiraisReal]

Mutah with conditions, such as no sexual touch or just no intercourse, can be very hard to follow.

Because Mutah is basically marriage, how would you feel your future wife says, "marry me but don't have pleasure from me".

I guess why you want to do mutah with condition is because you want a halal way to know a person but without having obligation to be sexual to each other.

But things can go south pretty quick, so never be alone in the room even if it's mutah with condition. Should always be in public place during day time. Thats my suggestion. But again I am not an expert on this.

Unfortunately I don't know the fiqs behind this, since mutah is marriage and in marriage you can't really have a condition that says no to sex right? so how does future to be husband and wife get to know each other in halal way, where they can talk privately with each other without being afraid of doing something haram or going over the limits.

anyone who knows more?

[Anonymous-Male]

Sayed Sistani:

2432. If a woman with whom temporary marriage is contracted, makes a condition that her husband will not have sexual intercourse with her, the marriage as well as the condition imposed by her will be valid, and the husband can then derive only other pleasures from her. However, if she agrees to sexual intercourse later, her husband can have sexual intercourse with her, and this rule applies to permanent marriage as well.

12 hours ago, AkhiraisReal said:

you can't really have a condition that says no to sex right?

The above answers your question. 

[Guest Anonymous female]

Salam

I’m a follower of Aqa e Sistani

I want to know whether I can do mutah with my fiancé (he lives overseas we can’t have online Nikaah due to some issues) and we also have some intimate talks despite of avoiding it to our best (we tried so much to avoid these intimate convo but have no results), so for avoiding sins, can we both do mutah without my father’s permission  though I’m financially dependent on him.

‘Cause these intimate conversations would carry on without mutah too. Both of us really want to avoid sins kindly reply ASAP.

[hello_0]

On 6/10/2021 at 12:04 AM, Guest Anonymous female said:

Salam

I’m a follower of Aqa e Sistani

I want to know whether I can do mutah with my fiancé (he lives overseas we can’t have online Nikaah due to some issues) and we also have some intimate talks despite of avoiding it to our best (we tried so much to avoid these intimate convo but have no results), so for avoiding sins, can we both do mutah without my father’s permission  though I’m financially dependent on him.

‘Cause these intimate conversations would carry on without mutah too. Both of us really want to avoid sins kindly reply ASAP.

Anyone? I am in almost an identical situation...

Thanks

[Guest Guest1]

https://www.sistani.org/english/qa/01245/

Question: If a woman is over thirty years of age, and still virgin, is it necessary for her to seek the permission of her guardian for marriage?

Answer: If she is not independent, it is obligatory on her to seek his consent. Rather, even if she is independent, she must seek his consent, as a matter of compulsory precaution.

[Abu Hadi]

On 9/8/2019 at 6:55 AM, Anonymous-Male said:

Sayed Sistani:

2432. If a woman with whom temporary marriage is contracted, makes a condition that her husband will not have sexual intercourse with her, the marriage as well as the condition imposed by her will be valid, and the husband can then derive only other pleasures from her. However, if she agrees to sexual intercourse later, her husband can have sexual intercourse with her, and this rule applies to permanent marriage as well.

The above answers your question. 

I am not aware that a permenant marriage , zawaj tul nikah, can be contracted with a rule of no intercourse. I have never heard of this before. I checked the link on the website of Sayyid Sistani for this

https://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2334/

and the link seems to be valid, but I have read other fatawa that said that 'no intercourse' isn't a valid condition for permenant marriage. If someone could find the Arabic and post. I think this is a mistranslation. 

It contradicts this fatwa, also from Sayyid Sistani

https://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2333/

Ruling 2430. It is unlawful for a woman in a permanent marriage to leave the house without the permission of her husband even if this does not infringe on his rights, except in the following cases: [i] a necessity requires her to; [ii] staying in the house causes her hardship (ḥaraj); [iii] the house is not appropriate for her. Also, she must submit to giving her husband sexual pleasure, which is his right, whenever he wishes. She must also not prevent him from having sexual intercourse with her without a legitimate excuse (ʿudhr). It is obligatory on a husband to provide his wife with food, clothing, housing, and other things that she needs. If he does not provide these for her, irrespective of whether he is able to or not, he will be indebted to her. Furthermore, one of the rights of a wife is that her husband must not subject her to harassment or abuse, and he must not treat her in a harsh or rough manner without a legitimate reason.

 

The fatwa specifically says 'cannot prevent him from having sexual intercourse' ? So how could there be a condition 'no sexual intercourse' and at the same time she cant prevent him from having 'sexual intercourse' (without a legitimate excuse) ? Unless this stipulation in the contract 'is' the legitimate excuse, but this is not listed as a 'legitimate excuse' by any ruling I have ever seen. 

Edited May 22, 2022 by Abu Hadi

[Anonymous-Male]

I understand your point of view.

But another point is that both mutah and nikah are marriages. If a woman can stipulate that she will not (ever) have sexual intercourse in Mutah, can she also not stipulate the same in Nikah? 

Theoretically, suppose a man and a woman enter Mutah for 100 years duration and the condition is no sexual intercourse. This would be Islamically valid.

So...can the same not be applicable to nikah which is a permanent marriage but will not last a 100 years? 

Can a woman put a condition in nikah that she will not have intercourse for a set duration...for example, the first month...or one year...or first five years? 

If the man accepts this condition, is there Islamically any problem... because after-all it is not obligatory for a couple to have sexual relations in nikah. The question only is that if a woman puts this condition at the start of nikah that she will never have sexual relations and the man accepts this condition and they get married....and a few years later, the husband demands sexual relations.....who will be justified then ?....the woman who is refusing (as stated in the contract which the man had accepted)...or the husband ? 

[Haji 2003]

3 hours ago, Anonymous-Male said:

But another point is that both mutah and nikah are marriages. If a woman can stipulate that she will not (ever) have sexual intercourse in Mutah, can she also not stipulate the same in Nikah?

My understanding has been that mutah can be arranged for a variety of reasons where the rules around marram/non-mahram would be difficult to maintain, for example if two people are travelling together. Also some people use mutah as a means of enabling talking between prospective spouses. 

[coldcow]

On 5/21/2022 at 11:26 AM, Guest Guest1 said:

https://www.sistani.org/english/qa/01245/

Question: If a woman is over thirty years of age, and still virgin, is it necessary for her to seek the permission of her guardian for marriage?

Answer: If she is not independent, it is obligatory on her to seek his consent. Rather, even if she is independent, she must seek his consent, as a matter of compulsory precaution.

Hmm... I wonder if a girl has been intimate with someone before marriage, and is no longer a virgin, but this was kept secret and she repented, must she still get her father's permission?

[Abu Hadi]

On 5/22/2022 at 11:22 PM, Anonymous-Male said:

I understand your point of view.

But another point is that both mutah and nikah are marriages. If a woman can stipulate that she will not (ever) have sexual intercourse in Mutah, can she also not stipulate the same in Nikah? 

Theoretically, suppose a man and a woman enter Mutah for 100 years duration and the condition is no sexual intercourse. This would be Islamically valid.

So...can the same not be applicable to nikah which is a permanent marriage but will not last a 100 years? 

Can a woman put a condition in nikah that she will not have intercourse for a set duration...for example, the first month...or one year...or first five years? 

If the man accepts this condition, is there Islamically any problem... because after-all it is not obligatory for a couple to have sexual relations in nikah. The question only is that if a woman puts this condition at the start of nikah that she will never have sexual relations and the man accepts this condition and they get married....and a few years later, the husband demands sexual relations.....who will be justified then ?....the woman who is refusing (as stated in the contract which the man had accepted)...or the husband ? 

The 'No sex' clause in Mutah contracts is (in the real world) for only two reasons 

1. This is not a marriage relationship but a relationship to make the lady mahram in the case where the two have to be alone together, travel together, etc, for business or some other reason. 

2. The intention is marriage, but permenant marriage (zawaj tul nikha). So the spouses are in the Mutah relationship to get to know each other before permenant marriage. In case where the relationship doesn't work out, the lady doesn't want to lose her virginity as this might damage her reputation in the future. 

Other than those two reason, I've never actually heard of the 'No sex' clause being used in any other way

So these two conditions don't apply to permenant marriage, zawaj tul Nikah. First, noone enters into Zawaj tul Nikah to make someone mahram for them for reasons other than marriage and making a family. That would make no sense, since they would have to divorce at the end, and noone gets married with the intention of divorce (I should say no sane person). Second, noone goes into permenant marriage with the goal of another type of marriage since this type of marriage is the goal. 

So if this condition were valid, that would mean that the man would have to abide by the contract. That would mean no sexual relations, possibly for the rest of his life. I don't think any man would agree to that unless there was some intervening condition, like he is asexual, i.e. has no need for sexual intercourse because of a health problem or something else. In this case, it is highly doubtful that he would seek out marriage in the first place. 

[Guest Brokenhearted]

I am very confused. I am a western woman who fell in love with a Muslim man. I am 48 years old and he was 58. We did the mutah so the relationship would be halal. He told me he was divorced under Islamic law, so as long as he was divorced, I went through with the mutah to be respectful and do the halal thing. so we could also be intimate with each other with the hopes of marriage at the end of the term. I was told this would allow us to be intimate as husband and wife. Unfortunately, for some reason he did not have sexual relations with me outside of kissing and light touching. Why would he not have had sexual relations with me? Could he have lied about his wife or was there another reason for this? We are no longer together, since the entire relationship was very strange and added a lot of stress on me since I loved him. Him not wanting to be with me intimately made me feel very uncomfortable and he never explained it to me. Could someone please explain why if we did the mutah, why would he not be intimate, since I was told this was a marriage?

[Guest Anonymous]

I wanted to inquire regarding a female asking her father's permission for Mutah. If the female is financially independent and doesn't really wanna disclose the matter to the family yet, then can she go ahead with mutah without seeking her Father's permission, given that there won't be a physical aspect to this relation?

After the set time period for Mutah ends and if they decide to go their separate ways, then will that female have to go through the iddat time period even though she and the male would never have come in physcial contact given that they reside in different countries?

[Abu Hadi]

According to most marjaa', marriage of a girl that is previously unmarried and / or reliant on her parent's for support requires the father's permission. This is regardless of whether it is mutah or permanent, and regardless of the terms of the marriage. It applies to all marriages. 

Also, the 'physical aspect' not being there. That could change at any point. If both agree that there will be a 'physical aspect' from that point in the marriage then there can be and this is often what happens in mutah. 

[JannahLM]

On 6/5/2018 at 1:16 PM, Ron_Burgundy said:

Why do you wanna do mutah?

It's a way to get to know someone and decide whether they're suitable for permanent marriage?

[Ashvazdanghe]

 

[Maisam Haider]

On 5/24/2022 at 3:41 PM, Abu Hadi said:

That would mean no sexual relations, possibly for the rest of his life. I don't think any man would agree to that unless there was some intervening condition, like he is asexual, i.e. has no need for sexual intercourse because of a health problem or something else. In this case, it is highly doubtful that he would seek out marriage in the first place. 

If a man or a woman is asexual (because of any health reason or because they are not troubled by any desire to have sex, i.e., they just simply do not need and do not wish to have sex any time in their life)... does that mean that they must not get married? 

In Islam, marriage is considered half of faith. That is, whosoever gets married, completes half his faith.

So can it not happen that an asexual person wishes to get married (however not to have sex, but to complete half his faith)? 

If a man and a woman both are asexual and they wish to get married (to complete half their faith as advised by Islam) and they put down the condition that sexual intercourse will never take place in their marriage, can we say that such marriage is not allowed? Is there any Islamic law which states that a couple must - at all cost - have sex  in their marriage even if they have absolutely no need, no desire, no urge to have sex at any point in their lives? 

I think that the laws which dictate the rights of sex within marriage are not based on compulsion. I mean, if the couple wishes to lead an absolutely sexless married life, but they are completely happy and satisfied with no physical intimacy, then Islamic law would not force or compel them to have sex when they simply are happy and contended and satisfied without sex. Although It would be a rare type of marriage and they would not have to undergo the responsibility of parenthood, they would still be Islamically married (even if the marriage is never consummated). 

Is there any time limit in Islam which states that a marriage must be consummated within a set period ? If not, then if the couple mutually agrees to have a sexless married life forever, Islamic law would not force them into something they do not wish to do. Sex in marriage is an option, it is not a compulsion as long as both husband and wife are perfectly fine with their asexual marriage. 

Edited January 6, 2024 by Maisam Haider

[JannahLM]

3 hours ago, Maisam Haider said:

If a man or a woman is asexual (because of any health reason or because they are not troubled by any desire to have sex, i.e., they just simply do not need and do not wish to have sex any time in their life)... does that mean that they must not get married? 

In Islam, marriage is considered half of faith. That is, whosoever gets married, completes half his faith.

So can it not happen that an asexual person wishes to get married (however not to have sex, but to complete half his faith)? 

If a man and a woman both are asexual and they wish to get married (to complete half their faith as advised by Islam) and they put down the condition that sexual intercourse will never take place in their marriage, can we say that such marriage is not allowed? Is there any Islamic law which states that a couple must - at all cost - have sex  in their marriage even if they have absolutely no need, no desire, no urge to have sex at any point in their lives? 

I think that the laws which dictate the rights of sex within marriage are not based on compulsion. I mean, if the couple wishes to lead an absolutely sexless married life, but they are completely happy and satisfied with no physical intimacy, then Islamic law would not force or compel them to have sex when they simply are happy and contended and satisfied without sex. Although It would be a rare type of marriage and they would not have to undergo the responsibility of parenthood, they would still be Islamically married (even if the marriage is never consummated). 

Is there any time limit in Islam which states that a marriage must be consummated within a set period ? If not, then if the couple mutually agrees to have a sexless married life forever, Islamic law would not force them into something they do not wish to do. Sex in marriage is an option, it is not a compulsion as long as both husband and wife are perfectly fine with their asexual marriage. 

I'm asexual myself so thanks for addressing this. I have thought about it for some time about how it's unlikely I'll marry because my chances of finding someone who is willing to forego sex are pretty slim. I found exactly one Muslim like this but we were incompatible in other ways, thus things simply did not work out between us.

[123xo]

On 12/28/2023 at 7:13 PM, Guest Anonymous said:

I wanted to inquire regarding a female asking her father's permission for Mutah. If the female is financially independent and doesn't really wanna disclose the matter to the family yet, then can she go ahead with mutah without seeking her Father's permission, given that there won't be a physical aspect to this relation?

After the set time period for Mutah ends and if they decide to go their separate ways, then will that female have to go through the iddat time period even though she and the male would never have come in physcial contact given that they reside in different countries?

So what's the point of this mutah marriage?? if it's nearly impossible for them to be physically together at the given time due to distance. Might as well just become pen pals lol

[123xo]

On 4/28/2023 at 9:15 PM, Guest Brokenhearted said:

I am very confused. I am a western woman who fell in love with a Muslim man. I am 48 years old and he was 58. We did the mutah so the relationship would be halal. He told me he was divorced under Islamic law, so as long as he was divorced, I went through with the mutah to be respectful and do the halal thing. so we could also be intimate with each other with the hopes of marriage at the end of the term. I was told this would allow us to be intimate as husband and wife. Unfortunately, for some reason he did not have sexual relations with me outside of kissing and light touching. Why would he not have had sexual relations with me? Could he have lied about his wife or was there another reason for this? We are no longer together, since the entire relationship was very strange and added a lot of stress on me since I loved him. Him not wanting to be with me intimately made me feel very uncomfortable and he never explained it to me. Could someone please explain why if we did the mutah, why would he not be intimate, since I was told this was a marriage?

Maybe at 58 a man isn't physically capable in his performance, if you know what i mean. And that's why he couldn't give you what you need. 

Also mutah isn't just for the deed. It can be done for any sort of physical relationship eg: holding hands, hugging etc....

[123xo]

7 hours ago, Maisam Haider said:

If a man or a woman is asexual (because of any health reason or because they are not troubled by any desire to have sex, i.e., they just simply do not need and do not wish to have sex any time in their life)... does that mean that they must not get married? 

In Islam, marriage is considered half of faith. That is, whosoever gets married, completes half his faith.

So can it not happen that an asexual person wishes to get married (however not to have sex, but to complete half his faith)? 

If a man and a woman both are asexual and they wish to get married (to complete half their faith as advised by Islam) and they put down the condition that sexual intercourse will never take place in their marriage, can we say that such marriage is not allowed? Is there any Islamic law which states that a couple must - at all cost - have sex  in their marriage even if they have absolutely no need, no desire, no urge to have sex at any point in their lives? 

I think that the laws which dictate the rights of sex within marriage are not based on compulsion. I mean, if the couple wishes to lead an absolutely sexless married life, but they are completely happy and satisfied with no physical intimacy, then Islamic law would not force or compel them to have sex when they simply are happy and contended and satisfied without sex. Although It would be a rare type of marriage and they would not have to undergo the responsibility of parenthood, they would still be Islamically married (even if the marriage is never consummated). 

Is there any time limit in Islam which states that a marriage must be consummated within a set period ? If not, then if the couple mutually agrees to have a sexless married life forever, Islamic law would not force them into something they do not wish to do. Sex in marriage is an option, it is not a compulsion as long as both husband and wife are perfectly fine with their asexual marriage. 

So why would anyone would wanna get married if they wont be intimate and physical together or plan on starting a family? 
No one wants to get married only to be living like a roommate, might as well stay single and create friendships with boundaries, pretty much the same.

[Ashvazdanghe]

41 minutes ago, 123xo said:

So what's the point of this mutah marriage?? if it's nearly impossible for them to be physically together at the given time due to distance. Might as well just become pen pals lol

Salam It can be for young people who want to know each other without committing Haram or sometimes a man just  becomes protector & supporter of a woman without falling in Haram relationship .

[123xo]

@Ashvazdanghe i understand, but in this case they're not together physically only via text and calls ? Do we need mutah to talk via text and calls with the opposite gender ???

[Ashvazdanghe]

8 hours ago, Maisam Haider said:

If a man and a woman both are asexual and they wish to get married (to complete half their faith as advised by Islam) and they put down the condition that sexual intercourse will never take place in their marriage, can we say that such marriage is not allowed? Is there any Islamic law which states that a couple must - at all cost - have sex  in their marriage even if they have absolutely no need, no desire, no urge to have sex at any point in their lives?

Salam it's ruling has been stated in verse of Zihar which a man can't cal his wife as a Mahram likewise his mother ,sister & etc & refrains from intercourse which except Zihar  if intercourse  doesn't happen they will be legally couples but woman will receive half of it's dowry so then she can marry again without preserving period of Iddah which your innovation as having sexless life after marriage is a great injustice against women based on Jahili   practice of pagans of Arab . 

Quote

The Verse of Ẓihār, or Ayat al-Ẓihār (Arabic: آیة الظهار), is the second verse of Qur'an 58, in which the Jahili practice of zihar is reproached. Zihar refers to an utterance in which a husband assimilates his wife to his mother, whereby he bars himself from returning to her and he forbids her for himself for lifetime. In this verse, God reproaches zihar, abrogates its enforceability, punishes the man who practices zihar with expiation (kaffara), and obligates him to repent to God.

The Verse of Zihar was revealed about one of the companions of the Prophet (s) who had practiced zihar and then regretted it. He sent his wife to the Prophet (s) to find a solution. It was then that the verse and other related verses were revealed.

 

Quote

Texts and Translation

“	الَّذِينَ يُظَاهِرُونَ مِنكُم مِّن نِّسَائِهِم مَّا هُنَّ أُمَّهَاتِهِمْ ۖ إِنْ أُمَّهَاتُهُمْ إِلَّا اللَّائِي وَلَدْنَهُمْ ۚ وَإِنَّهُمْ لَيَقُولُونَ مُنكَرًا مِّنَ الْقَوْلِ وَزُورًا ۚ وَإِنَّ اللَّـهَ لَعَفُوٌّ غَفُورٌ   As for those of you who repudiate their wives by zihar, they are not their mothers; their mothers are only those who bore them, and indeed they utter an outrage and a lie. Indeed Allah is all-excusing, all-forgiving..	”
— Qur'an 58:2

In verses following the Verse of Zihar, God states the rulings of expiation for zihar. Before paying the expiation, the husband is not permitted to have sexual intercourse with his wife. In order for rulings of zihar to be enforced and expiation being compulsory, certain conditions must hold, such as the presence of two righteous witnesses, the wife not being on her menstrual period, etc.

Zihar was a Jahili practice,^[4] and it literally means "back".^[5] Technically, it refers to an utterance whereby the wife becomes forbidden for her husband.^[6] In zihar, the man assimilates his wife to his own mother^[7] or another mahram^[8] of his out of anger and hatred.^[9] With the utterance, the man will be separated from his wife and will be stripped of his right to return to her for lifetime.^[10] Zihar was an obvious injustice to women and caused a lot of hardship for them.^[11] Thus, with the revelation of this verse, God abolished the ruling of law^[12] and its effect,^[13] that is, lifetime forbiddance of the woman for her husband,^[14] and denied that a wife can be like her husband's mother.^[15]

Quote

Exegesis

In the Verse of Zihar, God preaches^[17] that zihar is a false statement and reproaches the practice, characterizing it as wrong and blameworthy.^[18] The verse abolishes zihar and abrogates its effects, punishing those who practice zihar with expiation. According to the verse, one's mother is only the person who has given birth to him,^[19] and one's wife can never be treated like his mother.^[20]14 Appealing to the verse, Muslim scholars do not have a doubt about the forbiddance of zihar.^[21]

According to Makarim Shirazi, a contemporary exegete of the Qur'an, the mother-child relation is an external fact that cannot be generated with a mere utterance. Thus, if a man tells his wife, hundreds of time, that she is like his mother, she will not be like his mother. So, such an utterance is mere superstition and nonsense.^[22]

Some people have appealed to the apparent meaning of the verse as well as a hadith from Imam 'Ali (a) to show that if one practices zihar only once, then he is not obligated to pay the expiation. Payment of expiation will be obligatory only if it is practiced more than once.^[23] However, some people take this to be contrary to what the majority of scholars believe,^[24] because in this case the first time of zihar will remain without a expiation, which is not consistent with the context of the verse.^[25]

 

Conditions and Rulings

In the two verses following the Verse of Zihar, God specifies a particular expiation for regretting and returning to one's wife after zihar.^[26] The man must emancipate a slave if he can afford it. Otherwise, he must fast for sixty consecutive days, and if he cannot do this, then he must feed sixty poor people.^[27] Before the payment of expiation, the man is not permitted to have sexual intercourse with his wife.^[28] There is a disagreement among scholars as to cases in which the man cannot do any of the three expiations.^[29] It is believed by some that expiation for zihar was for purposes of learning a lesson,^[30] self-training,^[31] prevention of doing injustice to one's wife, and the protection of the family.^[32]

Zihar is said to have conditions such as the woman not being in her menstrual period, the man not having had a sexual intercourse with the woman before her last menstruation, and the presence of two just witnesses.^[33]35 The verse goes on to make it obligatory for a man who practices zihar to repent to God,^[34]23 in which case God will forgive the past sin.^[35]

https://en.wikishia.net/view/Al-Zihar_Verse

[Ashvazdanghe]

15 minutes ago, 123xo said:

@Ashvazdanghe i understand, but in this case they're not together physically only via text and calls ? Do we need mutah to talk via text and calls with the opposite gender ???

Yeah because even virtual intimacy can be sinful which talk via text & calls  maybe leads to  virtual intimacy .

[Maisam Haider]

1 hour ago, Ashvazdanghe said:

your innovation as having sexless life after marriage is a great injustice against women based on Jahili   practice of pagans of Arab . 

It would be injustice against the woman if she demands sex and the husband denies it. But if the woman is herself asexual and has no interest at all in sex and the husband is also able to lead a sexless life married life, then it is allowed and there is no jahili in it. That's because sexual activity is a personal choice within marriage and if there is mutual agreement to be sexless forever, then there is no prohibition according to Islamic law. 

[SO SOLID SHIA]

2 hours ago, 123xo said:

@Ashvazdanghe Do we need mutah to talk via text and calls with the opposite gender ???

 

2 hours ago, Ashvazdanghe said:

Yeah because even virtual intimacy can be sinful which talk via text & calls  maybe leads to  virtual intimacy .

The amount of phone calls I get on a daily basis... That would mean I would have to do mutah with half of Indias call centres. 

 

 

[Ashvazdanghe]

36 minutes ago, Maisam Haider said:

But if the woman is herself asexual and has no interest at all in sex and the husband is also able to lead a sexless life married life, then it is allowed and there is no jahili in it. That's because sexual activity is a personal choice within marriage and if there is mutual agreement to be sexless forever, then there is no prohibition according to Islamic law. 

Salam this is totally injustice to both of husband & wife also it's too irrational which this hellish marriage is only legal on paper which also it's against all Islamic recommendations about marriage .