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In the Name of God بسم الله

Origin of the name "issa" ?

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  • Advanced Member
Posted

The name 'Isa for 'Isa, son of Meryem a.s., has its origin 'ind-Allahi. It's the name Allah swt gave to him and it's not any form of any other name, it was and it is his name.

We shouldn't call him by any other name, in respect to Allah swt and His Qawl and His Kitab.

For those who're talking that they're following sunnah of men they shouldn't call him by other names then those men were using.

But, when we're talking with others who are not familiar with this name we could use other names, names which they understand.

All the names (names of all things) Allah swt used in His Qawl are original names, as 'Ibrahim, Moosa, Haroon, etc., or the names which are not personal as kawkab, el-bahr, el-berr, Muslimoon, mu'minoon, etc. If someone comes with the story that some of these are not Arabic names or names in Arabic language, I should tell that Qur'anic lisan is not Arabic language, Qur'anic lisan is 'arabiyyun mubeen, and these two words are its properties, not names.

Allah's bless and selam.

  • Advanced Member
Posted

:bismillah:

:salam:

 

There's been some debate regarding the origin of this word, here is what is in Ibn Mandhur's Lisaan al-`Arab:

 

وقال الجوهري: عِيسى اسم عِبْرانيّ أَو سُرياني، والجمع العِيسَوْن، بفتح السين، وقال غيره: العِيسُون، بضم السين، لأَن الياء زائدة.
al-Jawhari said: `Eesa is either a Hebrew or Syriac name, its plural is: al-`Eesawn, with a Fat-ha (َ) on the Seen (س). And other said: al-`Eesoon, with a Dammah (ُ) on the Seen(س), because the "ي" is added.

 

:salam:

 

 

  • Veteran Member
Posted

It's just the Arabic form of his name. The name is a little different depending on which Semitic language you are dealing with. So in Aramaic, which was probably his language, the name is Eesho:

 

This is already not very far from `Eesa, especially when you remember that Ishmael became Ismail in Arabic (i.e. the sheen also became a seen). These are just dialectical differences.

  • Moderators
Posted
8 hours ago, Haydar Husayn said:

It's just the Arabic form of his name. The name is a little different depending on which Semitic language you are dealing with. So in Aramaic, which was probably his language, the name is Eesho:

 

بسمه تعالى
السلام عليكم

According to Jeffery in The Foreign Vocabulary of the Qurʾān (Brill, 2007), pp. 218-220 this is a possibility for the etymology for the name of Christ found in the Ḳurʾān, ʿIsā.

Jeffery states that a view among a number of Muslims, based off the ʾaḥādīṯ, is that the name ʿIsā is derived from the Arabic noun عيس, meaning a ruddy (reddish-white) colour, this most likely isn't the etymology either. Jeffery then states that a number of philologists, such as ʾal-Ǧawharī, ʾas-Sībawayh, and ʾaz-Zaǧǧāǧ, this word is Arabized. Among the possibilities of the etymology of this word is that it was borrowed from the Syriac (Aramaic) by the Arabs.

Before I go on, the individual in the video cannot pronounce Semitic letters, like the Hebrew/Aramaic ʿAyin ( the Arabic ʿAyn). As a result I think there might be confusion in how the word is meant to be pronounced. It's necessary to know that in the original Hebrew, the name for Christ is Yēšūʿa (יֵשׁוּעַ - yōd šīn waw ʿayin) (the earlier iteration would have been Yehōšūʿa (יְהוֹשֻׁעַ - yōd hē waw šīn ʿayin), which is the name Joshua), meaning the ʿAyn that is at the beginning of Isa is at the end of the Hebrew name, and this has caused a lot of confusion. In the language Aramaic (which was the language that everyone spoke during the time of Jesus in the Middle East, like English is today, and Hebrew was just a liturgical language by this point, but not the language most people communicated to each other in), the name would have been Yēšūʿa (ܝܫܘܥ - yōd šīn waw ʿayin) or Īšōʿ (ܝܫܘܥ - yōd šīn waw ʿayin -- spelled the exact same though the initial Yōd is pronounced as a long vowel than as a consonant and there is no Ptāḥā over the ʿAyin) (this is the name the individual is using in this video), the latter being a common Syriac (a major dialect of Aramaic) pronunciation. Notice that this is still with the Yōd at the start of the word and the ʿAyin at the end, unlike the Arabic where the ʿAyn is at the beginning of the word and the ʾAlif Maḳṣūraḧ is at the end of it. According to Jeffery, the Arabized form is typical of borrowed Aramaic words, where the ʿAyin at the end of a word is dropped and the beginning of a word acquires an ʿAyin (ref. to Nöldeke's Mandäische Grammatik and Macuch's Handbook of Classical and Modern Mandaic):

ܝܫܘܥ becomes ܥܝܫܘ Arabized to عيسو becomes عيسى (this is perhaps due to a theory of the etymology mentioned by Jeffery earlier saying that the word ʿIsā was meant to be on the patter of Mūsā and Yaḥyā (e.g. Hārūt and Mārūt)).

Interestingly, this process occurred in the Aramaic dialect of Mandaic as well, where the name for Christ is ʿŠū (ref. to Macuch's Handbook of Classical and Modern Mandaic).

In any case, Jesus himself didn't speak Syriac (an Eastern Aramaic dialect which really originated during his lifetime and didn't become a dominant language until 300 years after his death), rather a Western Aramaic dialect called Jewish-Palestinian Aramaic (specifically the Galilean dialect). So He wouldn't have had his name pronounced as Īšōʿ, rather as Yēšūʿa (the Aramaic script would also have been the Imperial Aramaic script, not various dialectal scripts like Syriac or Mandaic).

Please note: If anyone goes and reads Jeffery's  The Foreign Vocabulary of the Qurʾān, they will see that the Syriac is in a different script than what I've written, in his book he used the Serṭā script, I used the ʾEsṭrangēlā here, the transcriptions remain the same however.

الله أعلم

Quote

This is already not very far from `Eesa, especially when you remember that Ishmael became Ismail in Arabic (i.e. the sheen also became a seen). These are just dialectical differences.

It's worth mentioning that the Hebrew from which the Arabic name came from wasn't Ishmael, but Yišmāʿēl (יִשְׁמָעֵאל), meaning an initial yōd became an ʾalef, and the šīn became sīn. However, there are a few different iterations of this name found throughout the Middle East before ʾIslām, including South and North Arabian iterations where it was Yismāʿēl and Yismaʿel respectively.

 

It's a bit more complicated than just changing a few letters and getting the Arabic (that is, the Ḳurayšī dialect of Western Arabic) (ref. to Jeffery pp. 63-64).

والسلام

  • Advanced Member
Posted (edited)

Have you asked yourselves, my dear brothers, "what Allah swt tought Adem a.s.? what are those names?"

Have you asked yourselves "why Allah swt used the word هَٰؤُلَاءِ in 2:31?" Were they whose names Allah swt tought Adem a.s. some creatures able to think? Were they, maybe" "khalifeh"? Was 'Isa, son of Meryem a.s., amongs them? If he was, did Allah swt tought Adem a.s. the name of 'Isa, son of Meryem a.s., besides others' names?

Are we "reading" the Qur'an if we're not using 'aql after/during that? Or, maybe, we're using some other language to "read" it.

Do you think that the Qur'an was made after 'Isa, son of Meryem a.s. and there wasn't way to "write/read" his name in Qur'anic lisan, and Allah swt had to "write/read" it deviated? You have bad thoughts about Our Rabb.

'Isa, son of Meryem a.s., was created before he was born, as we all were. And he, and all of us, got his name before he was born, but we're not "reading" the Qur'an, because we're not using 'aql.

Have you maybe read ayats from 19th surah Meryem about Yahya a.s.? Have you noticed that Allah swt told his father about his name before he was born? Was his name Yahya or it was John or some other name? Nobody had that name before him, but we're not "reading" the Qur'an, because we're not using 'aql.

Messengers a.s. were talking "I don't know" when they didn't know, why is this hard task for us?

Allah's bless and selam.

Edited by Aladin from Azra tribe

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