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sakura1994

Q. can married man whose wife is in another country do muta ?

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There is a difference between what is allowed and what is best.

In some circumstances the answer is yes, but his second (mutah) wife must be Muslima if his first wife is Muslima. (A permanently married man may not do mutah with Ahlul Kitab.) It's almost always a bad idea though, and knowingly causing his wife distress is not allowed.

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2 hours ago, notme said:

There is a difference between what is allowed and what is best.

In some circumstances the answer is yes, but his second (mutah) wife must be Muslima if his first wife is Muslima. (A permanently married man may not do mutah with Ahlul Kitab.) It's almost always a bad idea though, and knowingly causing his wife distress is not allowed.

does he have to take the permission of his first wife to marry muta ?

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8 minutes ago, notme said:

There is a difference between what is allowed and what is best.

In some circumstances the answer is yes, but his second (mutah) wife must be Muslima if his first wife is Muslima. (A permanently married man may not do mutah with Ahlul Kitab.) It's almost always a bad idea though, and knowingly causing his wife distress is not allowed.

I heard certain marja you dont have to tell your wife about muta if you want to do it

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5 minutes ago, sakura1994 said:

does he have to take the permission of his first wife to marry muta ?

Yeah, this. So pay attention to who is your prospective husband's marja.

4 minutes ago, LabaikYaHussein said:

I heard certain marja you dont have to tell your wife about muta if you want to do it

However, as I've said before, there is a difference between what is allowed and what is preferred. Divorce is allowed, but is considered detestable and should be used only in extreme cases. Similarly, just because a married man is allowed to mutah doesn't mean he should.

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Salamun alaykum sister... hope you're doing well.

Your question is straight forward but it involves more than a basic 'yes' or 'no'.

What I mean is that there are at times a straight canonical (fiqhi) answer to somethings, but at the same time those answers are dependent upon other factors that can sometimes put the issue in a different light. Sometimes other things are at stake which puts the ruling in a new light. Some people go extreme on one side and only look at the 'yes' or 'no' answers and act based on that, which leads to regretful outcomes. On the other hand, some people are always trying to find a way around the clear Islamic rulings and to explain them away or come up with new interpretations for them on their own and so they go to the other extreme.

The basic answer is that a man is not technically limited to one wife. However, there are other things involved here like for example: if he already has already has a good relationship with her and by doing this he would just be jeopardizing it, it's advised against doing it.

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When two people marry they must be caring for each other and according to hadith they must be intimate at least once every four months. If the husband is working in another country, he should come back home to visit his wife at least every four months. If he cannot, then the wife might assume that he will make mutah while he is away. If she is not married yet, she can stipulate in her marriage contract that she wants a divorce if her husband gets a job in another country, because she expects her husband to live where she is and be with her (and her children). 

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11 minutes ago, hameedeh said:

If the husband is working in another country, he should come back home to visit his wife at least every four months.

Just wondering, is there a Shi'a reference for that?

I recall the story of Umar's ruling for how long his soldiers could be away from their wives- or is this recommendation distinct from that story?

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3 hours ago, hameedeh said:

When two people marry they must be caring for each other and according to hadith they must be intimate at least once every four months. If the husband is working in another country, he should come back home to visit his wife at least every four months. If he cannot, then the wife might assume that he will make mutah while he is away. If she is not married yet, she can stipulate in her marriage contract that she wants a divorce if her husband gets a job in another country, because she expects her husband to live where she is and be with her (and her children). 

ok so when husband is away for more then four months , he too should assume that his wife will make mutah . 

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You are asking everybody here like we are some high ranking scholars , we are humbly trying to answer your question but it seems like you are trying to debate us on the fairness and legality of mutah , and to be honest we can only direct you towards the knowledgeable scholars from our school , and if their answers do not satisfy you then you can do your own research and come to your own conclusion , And I mean this in the most respectful way , if you are here to learn then by all means ask , but if you are here to argue and ridicule our school of thought with your consistent questions then keep in mind that Allah swt knows what is inside our hearts , may peace be with you and may Allah swt give you the answers you seek

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3 hours ago, sakura1994 said:

ok so when husband is away for more then four months , he too should assume that his wife will make mutah . 

No, a woman can not have multiple husbands. If she has been abandoned she can request divorce, but divorce is better to avoid if possible. She should have discussed these issues with her husband before they agreed to marry.

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8 hours ago, sakura1994 said:

ok so when husband is away for more then four months , he too should assume that his wife will make mutah . 

Is that a question you are asking OR are you joking? :shock:

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9 hours ago, Shaykh Patience101 said:

Just wondering, is there a Shi'a reference for that?

When a man and his wife are separated (not being intimate) they need to resolve their situation. In his book Woman and her Rights, Ayatullah Murtaza Mutahheri, writes:
"Imam Baqir (P) has said that a husband who swears that he has nothing to do with his wife and in pursuance of such an oath (ila') abstains from her society, has only two alternatives at the expiry of a period of four months. Either he should break his oath and make atonement (kaffarah) for his improper behaviour, or he must immediately divorce his wife, for Allah says: Either retain her (the woman) in good fellowship or release her in kindness. (Surah al-Baqarah 2 : 229)"

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6 hours ago, hameedeh said:

Is that a question you are asking OR are you joking? :shock:

no I am just showing you what you just said seems like , if man can't take it to stay with out woman for 4 months then woman are same , she should have equal right . 

Quote

treat others the way you wanna be treated 

if husband treat his first wife like this then he should expect equal treatment , wife should be able to do muta if he absent for more then 4 months as well .

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13 hours ago, sharinganMahdi said:

You are asking everybody here like we are some high ranking scholars , we are humbly trying to answer your question but it seems like you are trying to debate us on the fairness and legality of mutah , and to be honest we can only direct you towards the knowledgeable scholars from our school , and if their answers do not satisfy you then you can do your own research and come to your own conclusion , And I mean this in the most respectful way , if you are here to learn then by all means ask , but if you are here to argue and ridicule our school of thought with your consistent questions then keep in mind that Allah swt knows what is inside our hearts , may peace be with you and may Allah swt give you the answers you seek

I never said this was debate , I already put Q. in the title above .. and I am just asking according to general people knowledge , cuz shia do muta then at least you should know the simple rules for it .

if you don't have answer then you don't have to force yourself to comment .

Edited by sakura1994

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12 hours ago, sakura1994 said:

ok so when husband is away for more then four months , he too should assume that his wife will make mutah . 

arguments like this make it seem like you are not here to learn but to give your own opinion on the matter

 

37 minutes ago, sakura1994 said:

no I am just showing you what you just said seems like , if man can't take it to stay with out woman for 4 months then woman are same , she should have equal right . 

if husband treat his first wife like this then he should expect equal treatment , wife should be able to do muta if he absent for more then 4 months as well .

Why should she have equal rights? we didn't make the law Allah swt did , go and ask him

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3 hours ago, sharinganMahdi said:

arguments like this make it seem like you are not here to learn but to give your own opinion on the matter

 

Why should she have equal rights? we didn't make the law Allah swt did , go and ask him

because they are both humans with needs , if man can't control himself for more then 4 months , what makes you think woman can ? .. and this is basic human right we talking here , is he can't control himself then at least he should inform the first wife before doing muta , so she can decide if she want to stay with him and wait or divorce him .

Quote

arguments like this make it seem like you are not here to learn but to give your own opinion on the matter

I am not convinced with the answers been given that's why I keep asking cuz I am not satisfied with the answers being given , that's not argument .

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