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In the Name of God بسم الله

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  • Advanced Member
Posted

Hebrew is not an ethnicity per se but a language. The lingua franca of the Middle East at the time was Aramaic and Syriac with some authors believing that it was Syriac (dialect of Aramaic) that was more predominant. Koiné Greek was also a competing lingua franca. Jesus would have spoken Hebrew but Hebrew was more of a liturgical language at the time (and then later died out as a language of the Jews) and the people would have spoken Syro-Aramaic, as he would have.

  • Moderators
Posted

why was jesus's language aramaic when he was hebrew?

Because if he spoke only Hebrew, the masses would not have understood him, only the educated elites.

  • Advanced Member
Posted

He would have spoken a galilean dialect of 'Palestinian' Aramaic. They aquired the language during the exile in Babylon, (Aramaic and Hebrew are very similar).

  • Advanced Member
Posted
On 7/25/2014 at 12:53 PM, Netzari said:

He would have spoken a galilean dialect of 'Palestinian' Aramaic. They aquired the language during the exile in Babylon, (Aramaic and Hebrew are very similar).

Of which, Syriac developed. Galilean Aramaic, which in itself is a subset of the Judeo-Aramaic (called "Palestinian" today) dialect in Israel around the time of Christ.

The Aramaic spoken by the Jews in Iraq back when there were Jews left is still partly mutually intelligible with the Aramaic spoken by Christians in Iraq and Iran.

  • Advanced Member
Posted

I do have to say, you are a wonderful asset to the ShiaChat community! I'm sure there is so much you can teach us! Please forgive me, but I will probably be flooding your inbox with questions lol. I briefly studied Aramaic, but I unfortunately stopped to move onto other studies. I still have a Peshetta I reference from time to time, but no one to go to ask questions.

  • Advanced Member
Posted

I do have to say, you are a wonderful asset to the ShiaChat community! I'm sure there is so much you can teach us! Please forgive me, but I will probably be flooding your inbox with questions lol. I briefly studied Aramaic, but I unfortunately stopped to move onto other studies. I still have a Peshetta I reference from time to time, but no one to go to ask questions.

Thank you, and may you be a blessing to this community as well.

 

My fortune is growing up speaking Aramaic, and learning the difficulties of acquiring languages while still young.

My misfortune is to have such a fortune.

 

Although I don't know how the inboxes here work, feel free to contact me when you see fit, and I'll try my best to answer you.

Unless your community speaks it or your texts are written in Aramaic, why study it when there are better tools for Bible study, such as an interlinear Greek bible.

I see you list yourself as a "Son of Noah"; do you mean you are a Noachide?

  • 11 years later...
  • Site Administrators
Posted
20 hours ago, Haji 2003 said:

There are 2.4 thousand replies! We cannot see the replies (we are asked to make an account to read there). Can you please mention some good ones? 

  • Forum Administrators
Posted
6 hours ago, Hameedeh said:

There are 2.4 thousand replies! We cannot see the replies (we are asked to make an account to read there). Can you please mention some good ones? 

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Screenshot 2026-03-16 at 17.27.31.png

  • Advanced Member
Posted
On 7/28/2014 at 12:38 PM, salamtek said:

My fortune is growing up speaking Aramaic

Are you Chaldean or Assyrian?

  • Moderators
Posted
On 3/15/2026 at 10:36 AM, Haji 2003 said:

Salam akhi,

The word "God" in Aramic is Elaah/Elaahaa, which looks similar to Allah but it isn't. It's equivalent to إله in Arabic which is obviously a component of Allah. The -aa at the end is equal to the Al- at the start of Allah (it is the definite article, though this definite use is lost by the time of Syriac). So:

إله

אלוה -- Eloah (Hebrew)

אלה -- Elah (Non-Syriac Aramaic)

ܐܠܗܐ -- Elaahaa/Eloho (Syriac Aramaic)

The poster did eventually clarify this, but saying that the word for God is Allah in Aramaic is obviously incorrect.

On 7/25/2014 at 1:53 PM, Netzari said:

He would have spoken a galilean dialect of 'Palestinian' Aramaic. They aquired the language during the exile in Babylon, (Aramaic and Hebrew are very similar).

Ten years old but if someone is interested in this, Hebrew as an L1 language (first language/living language) seems to have died out around ~200 AD is the common number given-- this is not based on any inscriptions I've seen but rather it seems to be based on social and political history of Judea and assumptions of language populations, granting that it is the case though. This process began as Netzari states after Bakht Nasr (la) and Danyal (عليه السلام), as Aramaic was slowly supplanting many languages across the Middle East and establishing itself as a primary literary language (even for cultures like Palmyrenes and Nabateans, which spoke Arabic, Aramaic was still the preferred written medium, perhaps for prestige reasons). It's clear that Hebrew started being affected by Aramaic vocabulary from the period after the exile as we start finding loanwords supplanting existing Hebrew words (Iggereth for Mikhtav, both meaning "letter" (as in risaalah/khitaab) for example). This is reflected in late Biblical Hebrew, though perhaps somethings can be explained through other mechanisms (perhaps the usage of she- the relative pronoun is influenced by dh-, the Aramaic relative pronoun, where she- even replaces Hebrew ki (anna in Arabic or "that" in English introducing a subordinate clause), or perhaps by Northern Canaanite? Allahu A'lam. By the time for Isa (عليه السلام), the dominant language would have been Aramaic as pointed out with Galileean being very distinct (people commonly point out the passage in the Babylonian Talmud chastising the careless Galileean for being unclear in his speech-- due to dropping pharyngeal consonants much like Samaritans do and as I personally theorize Phoenecians did). This process of language death for Hebrew is complete when by the time after the Bar Kokhba rebellion and the Jews are speaking Aramaic from this point on. The Jewish Palestinian Aramaic of this region (represented in texts like the Jerusalem Targums and the Jerusalem Talmud) gave way to Christian Palestinian Aramaic after the area Christianized, much the same but preferring Greek loanwords to Hebrew loans, and then to Arabic when the Muslims conquered.

 

 

As a side note, I was thinking about this last night looking at ahadith on the language of Nuh (عليه السلام) being Syriac in Bihar. I believe when the ahadith use Syriac, they use it as a mathal (parallel/stand in) for old languages. Syriac (and Middle Persian) would have been the dominant literary languages of Iraq, where Nuh (عليه السلام) was from, with Akkadian and Sumerian (and anything older than that if Nuh (عليه السلام) did speak something pre-Sumerian) being forgotten from the memory of people, but Syriac still standing in the hadith for Aramaic more broadly (all of its dialects), Hebrew and Aramaic in the context of Jews, and as I believe older regional languages which are all reduced to this cultural memory of an Old Mesopotamian language (called Syriac, as opposed to Farsi which had different connotations in people's mind, and this language is used as a different mathal in hadith). Of course the other possibility is to do tawaqquf on this hadith (and it is never a possibility to weaken and reject a hadith in the way of rijalis and usulis, as this would exit you from wilayah). However, if this explanation works, it is acceptable, InshaAllah.

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