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In the Name of God بسم الله

Mutah Was A Preislamic Practise

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Truthseeker786

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  • Mutah Forbidden in Stages

The reality is that Mutah was permissible in the early days of Islam, but was eventually banned categorically by the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã). This is very similar to wine, which was at first permissible in Islam, and it was only later in time that the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) forbade it. The prohibitions against wine were expounded slowly over a period of time. In the beginning, drinking wine was permissible and many of the Sahabah did it. Then, the Quran declared that wine was harmful and bad. After some more time, the Quran forbade approaching prayer whilst drunk. After the people had become accustomed to this, it was only then that they were ready so that Allah and His Messenger (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) completely forbade wine.

Why did the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) first allow wine and then later forbid it? This was only because Islam was revealed in stages, and the faith was going through a transitional period, with the Shariah being expounded during the life-span of the Prophet. If the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) had not banned wine in stages, and instead had he (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) simply banned wine immediately, it would have been very hard for the early Muslims who were accustomed to wine-drinking, which was a hobby of the pagan Arabs. Many of them were early converts and their faith was weak. They had an addiction to wine, and many of them would become apostates if wine was suddenly banned outright. So, the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) banned wine in gradual stages so that it was easier on the people.

Likewise, Mutah was a hobby of the pagan Arabs. Hence, it was not forbidden in the beginning. This is because Islam was in a transitional stage. The Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) initially allowed Mutah on a few occassions because there were many new converts to Islam who had weak faith. They were often in times of war away from their wives, in which their desires got the best of them since they were not accustomed to the chastity of Islam. In order to prevent the apostacy of these new converts over the issue of Mutah, the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) did not forbid Mutah immediately. (And these are the Hadith which the Shia quote to “prove” that Sunnis believe in the permissibility of Mutah.)

Once the Muslims became stronger in faith, the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) categorically banned the practise of Mutah.

The Shorter Encyclopedia of Islam also states that Mutah was a common practice among Arab travelers and goes back to the fourth century:

“When a stranger came to a village and had no place to stay, he would marry a woman for a short time so that she would be his partner in bed and take care of his property.”

Caetani also concluded that Mutah in the pagan period was religious prostitution that took place during the occasion of pilgramage.

Thus, Mutah was a loose sexual practice during the pre-Islamic days of ignorance in Arabia. Being an old and established institution, it continued during the early days of Islam. The Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) also allowed it temporarily on two other occasions, but only under strict, exceptional conditions during the conquest of Khaybar and during the conquest of Mecca - fearing that those Muslims whose faith was not yet strong might commit adultery during Jihad.

The Shia widely quote Hadith in relation to these events to support their continued belief in Mutah. Sunnis accept these Hadith but add that they happened before all of the revelations of the Quran were revealed and the religion completed. Historians and commentators on the Quran and Hadith agree that Islam eradicated most social evils in a gradual way. It is well known that practices like gambling, drinking, and the eating of pork and blood were common during the early days but were gradually prohibited. Likewise, it seems probable that Mutah was first forbidden to those at Khaybar in the year 7 A.H. and was then completely prohibited to all upon the conquest of Mecca in 8 A.H.

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People have their own concepts of what mutah is or what mutah isn't.

The definition is in the eye of the beholder.

Through my perspective, its just a more safer version of dating (at least when applied in today's situations vs. back then)

Edited by ShiaBen
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The Quran has told believers, that you are allowed to do mutah:-

"[Forbidden to you] are married woman, except what your right hand possesses. This Allah has written for you, and all other women besides these are permitted to you, so that you may seek them out with your wealth, seeking chastity and not fornication. So when you have contracted temporary marriage [istimt'atum] with them, then give them their words. There is no sin on you for whatever you agree to after this. Indeed, Allah is Knowing, Wise."

According to Tafsir ibn Kathir, this verse was revealed for Mutah marriage. According to your Sahih Muslim:-

"Sabra al-Juhanni reported on the authority of his father that while he was with Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon hm) he said: 0 people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women…"

Furthermore, the Quran clearly states, Alcohol is not permitted anymore. Does it say that about Mutah? No...........so the analogy with alcohol is absurd

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) did not ban mutah. It was Umar who did. Jabir bin Abdullah states:- ‘we contracted temporary marriage giving a handful of (tales or flour as a dower during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) and during the time of Abu Bakr until 'Umar forbade it in the case of 'Amr b. Huraith".

Edited by BlackWave
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[33:36] And it becometh not a believing man or a believing woman, when Allah and His messenger have decided an affair (for them), that they should (after that) claim any say in their affair; and whoso is rebellious to Allah and His messenger, he verily goeth astray in error manifest.

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Whether it was forbidden or not forbidden, if you admit the Prophet allowed it at certain points, while Quran clearly forbade Zina and Fasha, then you have to admit it's not Zina or Fasha.

what a weird thing to say....The Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam allowed it at CERTAIN points...you just said it yourself! why would we have to admit that it's not zina or fahshaa? thats like saying "since pork is allowed at CERTAIN times, and Quran allows it at certain points, then it is not really pork!"

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The Quran has told believers, that you are allowed to do mutah:-

"[Forbidden to you] are married woman, except what your right hand possesses. This Allah has written for you, and all other women besides these are permitted to you, so that you may seek them out with your wealth, seeking chastity and not fornication. So when you have contracted temporary marriage [istimt'atum] with them, then give them their words. There is no sin on you for whatever you agree to after this. Indeed, Allah is Knowing, Wise."

According to Tafsir ibn Kathir, this verse was revealed for Mutah marriage. According to your Sahih Muslim:-

"Sabra al-Juhanni reported on the authority of his father that while he was with Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon hm) he said: 0 people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women…"

Furthermore, the Quran clearly states, Alcohol is not permitted anymore. Does it say that about Mutah? No...........so the analogy with alcohol is absurd

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) did not ban mutah. It was Umar who did. Jabir bin Abdullah states:- ‘we contracted temporary marriage giving a handful of (tales or flour as a dower during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) and during the time of Abu Bakr until 'Umar forbade it in the case of 'Amr b. Huraith".

first of all..."so when you have contracted temporary marriage with them..." where in the world did you get this translation??? you are making yourself seem so extremely desperate by coming up with your own translation...the word "istamta3tum" does not only denote YOUR concept of mut'ah, IT HAS A LINGUISTIC MEANING! Just like "mataa3un lakum wa li an3aamikum"...dont try to monopolize the ayaat of Allaah...that ayah was not only pertaining to Mut'ah, it is still valid!! because when it says "fa mastamta3tum bihi.." it can even mean the lawful PERMENANT nika7 so it doesnt need naskh! all it needs is for to accept that it is a shameful act, which the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam never did, and was only in response to the companions fearing zinaa and wanting to castrate themselves out of their piety....in fact the ayah itself has conditions...Allaah says "seeking CHASTITY" thats the opposite of MUT'AH! mut'ah does not allow a person to be chaste because it means "sexual enjoyment"...a person who goes around making day long or week long or month long contracts for sex is not a chaste person! does chastity in your definition only require that you have your sex documented?

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The reality is that Mutah was permissible in the early days of Islam, but was eventually banned categorically by the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم). This is very similar to wine, which was at first permissible in Islam, and it was only later in time that the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) forbade it.

Salams

This analogy is flawed because wine was never introduced by Islam to begin with. Drinking wine was an existing societal disease which Islam eradicated gradually. In contrast, Mutah was actually introduced to Muslims by the Almighty when they couldn't control their sexual desires due to being away from their wives for a long period of time. It included Haq Mehr and was a temporal form of halal relationship.

In regards to the claim that the Prophet P.b.u.H banned mutah in his lifetime, this is debatable and is best left to the judgement of individuals who wouldn't mind a thorough and an unbiased research. Afterall, there are many historical references and reports suggesting otherwise; for example, references that the first person to ban it was Umar. Or the report of Jabir that they (companions) contracted mutah in the lifetime of the Prophet P.b.u.H and during the time of Abu Bakr until Umar forbade it. Or the famous saying of Imam Ali, "Had Umar not banned Mut'ah, the only person to fornicate would be a wretched person."

Fi-Amanillah

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what a weird thing to say....The Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam allowed it at CERTAIN points...you just said it yourself! why would we have to admit that it's not zina or fahshaa? thats like saying "since pork is allowed at CERTAIN times, and Quran allows it at certain points, then it is not really pork!"

So you saying Prophet allowed Zina and Fasha at certain points while Quran said it was forbidden?

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So you saying Prophet allowed Zina and Fasha at certain points while Quran said it was forbidden?

wow...are you guys robots? is it that much to ask that a person replies, retorts, or constructs a rebuttle without asking an alternate question?...how old are you my friend? I never said anything like that...when the prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam(dont forget to invoke Allaah for him) allowed it, it was under severe conditions and was of course halal...but then it was banned....Did you skip my example on Pork? Allaah says that pork can be eaten if you are pressured due to harm or starvation, so Allaah made the haram halal in extreme situations..

Salams

This analogy is flawed because wine was never introduced by Islam to begin with. Drinking wine was an existing societal disease which Islam eradicated gradually. In contrast, Mutah was actually introduced to Muslims by the Almighty when they couldn't control their sexual desires due to being away from their wives for a long period of time. It included Haq Mehr and was a temporal form of halal relationship.

In regards to the claim that the Prophet P.b.u.H banned mutah in his lifetime, this is debatable and is best left to the judgement of individuals who wouldn't mind a thorough and an unbiased research. Afterall, there are many historical references and reports suggesting otherwise; for example, references that the first person to ban it was Umar. Or the report of Jabir that they (companions) contracted mutah in the lifetime of the Prophet P.b.u.H and during the time of Abu Bakr until Umar forbade it. Or the famous saying of Imam Ali, "Had Umar not banned Mut'ah, the only person to fornicate would be a wretched person."

Fi-Amanillah

how do you say his analogy is flawed? didnt you read that mut'ah also was not introduced by islam...for ALlaah's sake he gave the reference in the same post....

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how do you say his analogy is flawed? didnt you read that mut'ah also was not introduced by islam...for ALlaah's sake he gave the reference in the same post....

It is only being implied in the initial argument that mutah was not introduced by Islam. The references are so vague and ordinary, one can hardly take them seriously. For example, the initial post quotes, "The Shorter Encyclopedia of Islam also states that Mutah was a common practice among Arab travelers and goes back to the fourth century". Now, firstly, whose classical work is this 'The shorter Encyclopedia of Islam' and when was it written? Also, the reference mentions 'fourth century'. Is this fourth century reffering to after hijra or A.D or is it based on some other pre-Islamic/Arabic/lunar calendar? Leaving aside technicalities for a moment, lets also ponder on the reference at a common sense level. I don't doubt that travellers of pre-Islamic era were 'marrying' (having temporary relationship with) women for various reasons just like many muslim men do so nowadays (That includes sunni muslims by the way). But why is that relationship with women being translated into the temporary marriage introduced to the companions by Islam? Didn't the temporary marriage introduced by Islam include Haq Mehr and Idda?

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Salam,

just a quick question(seems relevant): if it was umar who forbade mutah, did hazrat ali(as) reinstate it? If not, then why??

Thanks

not here to offend anyone

The very first condition Imam Ali (as) accepted Caliphate was not following the Sunna of Umar and Abubakr.

Even the prayers were changed by the Father of Biddah, refer to sahih hadith that Imam Ali (as) prayers were similar to Prophet (pbuh). That's what the Sahaba told.

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You have said that the Prophet (pbuh) categorically forbade it. What is your proof? Any Hadith? You also said that "Sunnis accept these Hadith but add that they happened before all of the revelations of the Quran were revealed and the religion completed." So, if this was before Islam was completed, can you give me some source or reference to show that in the process of completing Islam, Allah (SWT) did, finally, forbid it?

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what a weird thing to say....The Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam allowed it at CERTAIN points...you just said it yourself! why would we have to admit that it's not zina or fahshaa? thats like saying "since pork is allowed at CERTAIN times, and Quran allows it at certain points, then it is not really pork!"

Your analogy about pork is certainly flawed. Yes, Islam allows us to eat pork but this is only in extreme circumstances. Can we say that the times the Prophet (pbuh) allowed Mutah were extreme? Being away from your wife for a few days is certainly not extreme!

If you think it is extreme, please say so because I have some other questions for you, if you do.

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first of all..."so when you have contracted temporary marriage with them..." where in the world did you get this translation??? you are making yourself seem so extremely desperate by coming up with your own translation...the word "istamta3tum" does not only denote YOUR concept of mut'ah, IT HAS A LINGUISTIC MEANING! Just like "mataa3un lakum wa li an3aamikum"...dont try to monopolize the ayaat of Allaah...that ayah was not only pertaining to Mut'ah, it is still valid!! because when it says "fa mastamta3tum bihi.." it can even mean the lawful PERMENANT nika7 so it doesnt need naskh! all it needs is for to accept that it is a shameful act, which the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam never did, and was only in response to the companions fearing zinaa and wanting to castrate themselves out of their piety....in fact the ayah itself has conditions...Allaah says "seeking CHASTITY" thats the opposite of MUT'AH! mut'ah does not allow a person to be chaste because it means "sexual enjoyment"...a person who goes around making day long or week long or month long contracts for sex is not a chaste person! does chastity in your definition only require that you have your sex documented?

Its not me or you who have to decide what this verse means........we have to intepret the verse not on our knowledge of arabic but based on the traditions of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), if you read your own sunni books of hadith, according to them, this verse refers to muttah:-

Narrated by Imran bin Hussain:-

"The Verse of Mut'a was revealed in Allah's Book, so we did it at the time of Allah's Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Quran to make it illegal, nor did the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But a man (who regarded it illegal) expressed what his own mind suggested."

Sahih Bukhari [Arabic], Kitab al Tafseer, Tradition 4559

Narrated Abdulrazaq and Abu Dawoud in (book) Nasikh and narrated ibn Jareer from al-Hakam that he was asked whether the verse on Mut'ah has been abrogated, he said: "No, Ali (as) said that if it were not Umar forbidding it, no one would commit (the sin) of fornication except the wretched (Shaqi; an utmost wrongdoer)."

Tafseer Dur al-Manthur,

olume 2 page 140

Narrated Abu Nadhra:

While I was in the company of Jabir Ibn Abdullah (ra), a person came to him and said that Ibn Abbas (ra) and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'a (Mut'a of Hajj and Mut'a of women), whereupon Jabir said: We used to do these two during the life time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh). Umar then forbade us to do them, and so we did not revert to them. (Sahih Muslim)

Thus, according to the above traditions, The Holy Quran permitted mutah and there was no verse revealed later on prohibiting it. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) did not ban mutah during his lifetime, but it was Umar who banned it based on what "his own mind suggessted." We believe what has been made permissible by the Quran and Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is permissible till the day of judgement and Umar had no right to change the religion of Islam based on his own opinions.

Edited by BlackWave
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“…so with those of whom you have enjoyed sexual relations, give them their Mahr as prescribed…”

[al-Nisa’ 4:24]

you say: this verse indicates that mut’ah is permissible, and the word ‘their mahr (ujoorahunna – lit. their dues or their wages)’ is evidence that what is meant by the phrase ‘you have enjoyed sexual relations’ is mut’ah.

The refutation of this is the fact that prior to this Allaah mentions the women whom a man is forbidden to marry, then he mentions what is permissible for him, and He commands the man to give to the woman he marries her mahr.

The joy of marriage is expressed here by the word enjoyment (‘of whom you have enjoyed sexual relations’). A similar instance occurs in the Sunnah, in the hadeeth of Abu Hurayrah according to which the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Woman is like a bent rib, if you try to straighten her you will break her. If you want to enjoy her, then enjoy her while she still has some crookedness in her.”

Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4889; Muslim, 1468.

The mahr is referred to here as ajr (lit. dues or wages), but this does not refer to the money which is paid to the woman with whom he engages in mut’ah in the contract of mut’ah. The mahr is referred to as ajr elsewhere in the Book of Allaah, where Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“O Prophet (Muhammad)! Verily, We have made lawful to you your wives, to whom you have paid their Mahr (bridal‑money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage)…”

[al-Ahzaab 33:50]

Thus it becomes clear that there is no evidence in this verse to suggest that mut’ah is permissible.

Even if we were to say for argument’s sake that this verse indicates that mut’ah is permitted, we would still say that it is abrogated by the reports in the saheeh Sunnah which prove that mut’ah is forbidden until the Day of Resurrection.

“One who engages in Mutah once in his lifetime reaches the status of Imam Al-Hussain. One who engages in it twice becomes equal in status to Imam Al-Hasan. The one who performs it three times reaches the position of Imam Ali. And he who practices it four times acquires the level and position of the Prophet Muhammad.”

(Furoo al-Kafi)

^^This is clear blasphemy and an example of a shia hadith allowing mutah ive seen quoted very often

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(Furoo al-Kafi) ^^This is clear blasphemy and an example of a shia hadith allowing mutah ive seen quoted very often

never heard this before, its probably fabricated as we would never put ourselves in the same level as the ahlulbayt(as). also, muttah is not regarded as a very religeous act, that if one performs it then he achieves the status of the ahlulbayt(as).

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Its not me or you who have to decide what this verse means........we have to intepret the verse not on our knowledge of arabic but based on the traditions of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), if you read your own sunni books of hadith, according to them, this verse refers to muttah:-

Narrated by Imran bin Hussain:-

"The Verse of Mut'a was revealed in Allah's Book, so we did it at the time of Allah's Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Quran to make it illegal, nor did the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But a man (who regarded it illegal) expressed what his own mind suggested."

Sahih Bukhari [Arabic], Kitab al Tafseer, Tradition 4559

Narrated Abdulrazaq and Abu Dawoud in (book) Nasikh and narrated ibn Jareer from al-Hakam that he was asked whether the verse on Mut'ah has been abrogated, he said: "No, Ali (as) said that if it were not Umar forbidding it, no one would commit (the sin) of fornication except the wretched (Shaqi; an utmost wrongdoer)."

Tafseer Dur al-Manthur,

olume 2 page 140

Narrated Abu Nadhra:

While I was in the company of Jabir Ibn Abdullah (ra), a person came to him and said that Ibn Abbas (ra) and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'a (Mut'a of Hajj and Mut'a of women), whereupon Jabir said: We used to do these two during the life time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh). Umar then forbade us to do them, and so we did not revert to them. (Sahih Muslim)

Thus, according to the above traditions, The Holy Quran permitted mutah and there was no verse revealed later on prohibiting it. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) did not ban mutah during his lifetime, but it was Umar who banned it based on what "his own mind suggessted." We believe what has been made permissible by the Quran and Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is permissible till the day of judgement and Umar had no right to change the religion of Islam based on his own opinions.

ok first of all...that hadith you mentioned is nowhere in Bukhari! I have the entire Sahih al Bukhari!! this is hadith tradition 4559 in Kitab al Tafseer..."It is related that al-Bara' ibn 'Azib said, "While one of the Companions of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, was reciting, his horse which was tethered in the house began to shy. The man went out, looked around, but did not see anything and yet the horse continue to shy, In the morning, he mentioned that to the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, who said, 'That was the Sakina(tranquillity) which descended because of the Qur'an.'" HADITH NUMBER 4559 is about Surah 48!! where did you get this garbage from?? is it taqiyyah? are you trying to fool people here man? All the Saheeh hadith (not the fabricated ones you just referenced) about Umar banning Mut'ah are from companions who didnt know that it was banned!!! thats why there are MUTAWAATIR reports from Bukhari, Muslim and other books of hadith about multiple instances where the Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam forbidding mut'ah!

ok first of all...that hadith you mentioned is nowhere in Bukhari! I have the entire Sahih al Bukhari!! this is hadith tradition 4559 in Kitab al Tafseer..."It is related that al-Bara' ibn 'Azib said, "While one of the Companions of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, was reciting, his horse which was tethered in the house began to shy. The man went out, looked around, but did not see anything and yet the horse continue to shy, In the morning, he mentioned that to the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, who said, 'That was the Sakina(tranquillity) which descended because of the Qur'an.'" HADITH NUMBER 4559 is about Surah 48!! where did you get this garbage from?? is it taqiyyah? are you trying to fool people here man? All the Saheeh hadith (not the fabricated ones you just referenced) about Umar banning Mut'ah are from companions who didnt know that it was banned!!! thats why there are MUTAWAATIR reports from Bukhari, Muslim and other books of hadith about multiple instances where the Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam forbidding mut'ah!

and my last comment on this issue In SHaa' Allaah is that if you think Umar was a person of hawaa' someone who was an opressor and was only looking to serve his desires, then HE WOULD HAVE MORE OF A REASON TO IMPLEMENT MUT'AH THEN TO BAN IT...think carefully

never heard this before, its probably fabricated as we would never put ourselves in the same level as the ahlulbayt(as). also, muttah is not regarded as a very religeous act, that if one performs it then he achieves the status of the ahlulbayt(as).

It is not fabricated...there is a whole lecture on mut'ah by a shi'i imam on youtube where he quotes all the ahadith about mut'ah...it is definitely regarded as a religious act in Shi'ism...there are ahadith in which a person is saved from shirk if he performs mut'ah, sins are supposed to be cleansed and much more...

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you're honestly quoting this guy?^

this is the same guy who says that if there is a non-mahram in a woman's house, they should do a mutah for 2-4 hours so she can walk about with her hair and legs etc showing. i know it's a wahabi video and they have tried to infer some stuff in the subtitles, but i understand arabic and it is mostly accurate..

embarrassing, and not from Islam.

there are ahadith in which a person is saved from shirk if he performs mut'ah, sins are supposed to be cleansed and much more..

obviously false ahadith, sorry.

Edited by Alejandro Sosa
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ok first of all...that hadith you mentioned is nowhere in Bukhari! I have the entire Sahih al Bukhari!! this is hadith tradition 4559 in Kitab al Tafseer..."It is related that al-Bara' ibn 'Azib said, "While one of the Companions of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, was reciting, his horse which was tethered in the house began to shy. The man went out, looked around, but did not see anything and yet the horse continue to shy, In the morning, he mentioned that to the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, who said, 'That was the Sakina(tranquillity) which descended because of the Qur'an.'" HADITH NUMBER 4559 is about Surah 48!! where did you get this garbage from?? is it taqiyyah? are you trying to fool people here man? All the Saheeh hadith (not the fabricated ones you just referenced) about Umar banning Mut'ah are from companions who didnt know that it was banned!!! thats why there are MUTAWAATIR reports from Bukhari, Muslim and other books of hadith about multiple instances where the Prophet Sul ALlaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam forbidding mut'ah!

and my last comment on this issue In SHaa' Allaah is that if you think Umar was a person of hawaa' someone who was an opressor and was only looking to serve his desires, then HE WOULD HAVE MORE OF A REASON TO IMPLEMENT MUT'AH THEN TO BAN IT...think carefully

It is not fabricated...there is a whole lecture on mut'ah by a shi'i imam on youtube where he quotes all the ahadith about mut'ah...it is definitely regarded as a religious act in Shi'ism...there are ahadith in which a person is saved from shirk if he performs mut'ah, sins are supposed to be cleansed and much more...

The hadith I quoted is in bukhari, volume 6, book 60 (Kitab al tafsir), Hadith no 43..................da saudi translators have changed the word mutah to hajj at tamatu....however if you have bukhari in arabic, the word mutah has been used alone. I think i wrote the wrong hadith no in the above post....sorry about that, it was a typo....however the hadith is very much in bukhari:-

Narrated 'Imran bin Husain:

The Verse of Mutah was revealed in Allah's Book, so we performed it with Allah's Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Qur'an to make it illegal, nor did the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But the man (who regarded it illegal) just expressed what his own mind suggested.

so if u have the whole bukhari in arabic, go and read it, the hadith is there

Edited by BlackWave
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Sahih Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 51:

Narrated Abu Jamra:

I heard Ibn Abbas (giving a verdict) when he was asked about the Mut'a with the women, and he permitted it (Nikah-al-Mut'a). On that a freed slave of his said to him, "That is only when it is very badly needed and women are scarce." On that, Ibn 'Abbas said, "Yes."

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It is not fabricated...there is a whole lecture on mut'ah by a shi'i imam on youtube where he quotes all the ahadith about mut'ah...it is definitely regarded as a religious act in Shi'ism...there are ahadith in which a person is saved from shirk if he performs mut'ah, sins are supposed to be cleansed and much more...

So you agree with the hadith that alejandro posted. Even if we pray so much and do so mnay good deads, we would not be able to reach the status of the prophet (saw) and the ahlulbayt (as). but by doing muttah, we will reach their level??? :wacko: that is not logical.

Edited by Hezbollah313(Sameer)
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The hadith I quoted is in bukhari, volume 6, book 60 (Kitab al tafsir), Hadith no 43..................da saudi translators have changed the word mutah to hajj at tamatu....however if you have bukhari in arabic, the word mutah has been used alone. I think i wrote the wrong hadith no in the above post....sorry about that, it was a typo....however the hadith is very much in bukhari:-

Narrated 'Imran bin Husain:

The Verse of Mutah was revealed in Allah's Book, so we performed it with Allah's Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Qur'an to make it illegal, nor did the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But the man (who regarded it illegal) just expressed what his own mind suggested.

so if u have the whole bukhari in arabic, go and read it, the hadith is there

Yes, I have bukhari in arabic and english, and it is not there....you have to stop quoting from the internet...get the book and see for yourself...you can get a mukhtasar from Darusalam for about twenty dollars...

So you agree with the hadith that alejandro posted. Even if we pray so much and do so mnay good deads, we would not be able to reach the status of the prophet (saw) and the ahlulbayt (as). but by doing muttah, we will reach their level??? :wacko: that is not logical.

I never said it was logical...you have to question your own hadith, not me...

The hadith I quoted is in bukhari, volume 6, book 60 (Kitab al tafsir), Hadith no 43..................da saudi translators have changed the word mutah to hajj at tamatu....however if you have bukhari in arabic, the word mutah has been used alone. I think i wrote the wrong hadith no in the above post....sorry about that, it was a typo....however the hadith is very much in bukhari:-

Narrated 'Imran bin Husain:

The Verse of Mutah was revealed in Allah's Book, so we performed it with Allah's Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Qur'an to make it illegal, nor did the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But the man (who regarded it illegal) just expressed what his own mind suggested.

so if u have the whole bukhari in arabic, go and read it, the hadith is there

and it was not a typo...at first, I searched for the hadith in my copy of bukhari, I couldnt find it...then I went to an online library from sunni path and I couldnt find it...so I decided to search for the hadith number you quoted and it turned out to be about surah 48....and when I googled the hadith that you quoted, EVERY SINGLE SEARCH SAID THE SAME THING AS YOU..."Narrated Imran bin Hussain...." so this is a widely propagated lie by Shi'ah, and not just a typo....and you have to prove to me that the "saudi translators" changed it to Hajj al tamattu'....

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Yes, I have bukhari in arabic and english, and it is not there....you have to stop quoting from the internet...get the book and see for yourself...you can get a mukhtasar from Darusalam for about twenty dollars...

I never said it was logical...you have to question your own hadith, not me...

and it was not a typo...at first, I searched for the hadith in my copy of bukhari, I couldnt find it...then I went to an online library from sunni path and I couldnt find it...so I decided to search for the hadith number you quoted and it turned out to be about surah 48....and when I googled the hadith that you quoted, EVERY SINGLE SEARCH SAID THE SAME THING AS YOU..."Narrated Imran bin Hussain...." so this is a widely propagated lie by Shi'ah, and not just a typo....and you have to prove to me that the "saudi translators" changed it to Hajj al tamattu'....

This hadith is there:-

http://www.sahih-buk...ukhari_6_60.php

hadith 43..........if you have the text in arabic, the arabic text does not make any mention of hajj at tamatu.....it only says muta......ive got a darusslam version (arabic-english) of bukhari in my home translated by dr. muhammad muhsin khan cuz everybody in my family is sunni anyway. Yes, I did quote from the internet because I did not to go and get the book and then search for the hadith........internet is a shortcut lol but its there in bukhari.

Edited by BlackWave
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I never said it was logical...you have to question your own hadith, not me....

oh sorry, i must have misunderstood. but this is not our hadith, clearly contradictory to shia belief so yh. its probably made by someine to defame shia, or maybe by a radical shia cleric. anyhow, its not from shiaism.

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The hadith I quoted is in bukhari, volume 6, book 60 (Kitab al tafsir), Hadith no 43..................da saudi translators have changed the word mutah to hajj at tamatu....however if you have bukhari in arabic, the word mutah has been used alone. I think i wrote the wrong hadith no in the above post....sorry about that, it was a typo....however the hadith is very much in bukhari:-

The Shia will produce obscure sources to “prove” their claim that it was Umar (ÑÖøì Çááå Úäå) who forbade Mutah, and not the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã). As is typical with the Shia, such obscure sources suddenly become the “authoratative Sunni book”–despite the fact that these are obscure and unreliable sources, and oftentimes these are books written by Shia scholars and have absolutely nothing to do with the Ahlus Sunnah wal Jama’ah.

It is possible that the disagreement surrounding temporary marriage–both back then after the Prophet’s death (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) and now with our debates with the Shia–revolves around people confusing two homonyms in the Arabic language. “Mutah” is used in two ways:

1) Mutah Al-Nisa: temporary marriage with women

2) Mutah Al-Hajj: A type of religious pilgramage in which one performs a modified version of Umrah and Hajj. The more common name for this type of pilgramage is tamattu’ (and hence the confusion).

Mutah Al-Nisa translates to “pleasure of the women” and this needs no explanation. As for Mutah Al-Hajj, this refers to the pleasure of this modified form of pilgramage. In Mutah Al-Hajj, the Prophet (Õáøì Çááå Úáíå æÂáå æÓáøã) allowed relaxation of the Ihram and other duties, thereby making the pilgramage more enjoyable and pleasurable to the believer. It is for this reason that it is referred to as Mutah Al-Hajj.

Many of the Hadith that the Shia bring up that use the word “Mutah” are actually referring to Mutah Al-Hajj, and have nothing to do with Mutah Al-Nisa. Thus, a Sunni follower should not be caught off-guard when the Shia propagandists take Hadith out of context, pretending it refers to Mutah Al-Nisa when it really refers to Mutah Al-Hajj.

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This hadith is there:-

http://www.sahih-buk...ukhari_6_60.php

hadith 43..........if you have the text in arabic, the arabic text does not make any mention of hajj at tamatu.....it only says muta......ive got a darusslam version (arabic-english) of bukhari in my home translated by dr. muhammad muhsin khan cuz everybody in my family is sunni anyway. Yes, I did quote from the internet because I did not to go and get the book and then search for the hadith........internet is a shortcut lol but its there in bukhari.

Oh God, your talking about that hadith?? It's in the Chapter of HAJJ!! lol...it's even categorized in the section of HAJJ AL TAMATTU3... if you have the book why do you quote from the internet? for a shortcut? that's not very logical...please dont blame me for thinking that you are just lying right now, because if you had the book you wouldnt misquote the hadith like that, unless you really are just lazy...it says "tamatta3naa" in the chapter of hajj, so he is referring to Hajj al tamattu3...just read the hadith before it and you'll see In Shaa' Allaah...Narrated Jabir Ibn 'AbdiLaah: "7attaa idhaa kaana yawmul tarwiyati fa ah-hiloo bi BILHAJJ, waj'alool latee qadimtum bihaa MUT'AH!!! do you see know? that hadith explicitly mentions Hajj and the work Mut'ah only! so that's how they used to refer to Hajj al tamattu'...dont be so closed minded...if it was about Nikah al Mut'ah then it would be in the book of Nikah with the other hadith that shi'ah love to run with...Im glad your family is sunni, may Allaah guide you through them, my whole family were Zaidies but Al7amduliLaah they are with the Jamaa'ah now...

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The Shia will produce obscure sources to “prove” their claim that it was Umar (رضّى الله عنه) who forbade Mutah, and not the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم). As is typical with the Shia, such obscure sources suddenly become the “authoratative Sunni book”–despite the fact that these are obscure and unreliable sources, and oftentimes these are books written by Shia scholars and have absolutely nothing to do with the Ahlus Sunnah wal Jama’ah.

It is possible that the disagreement surrounding temporary marriage–both back then after the Prophet’s death (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) and now with our debates with the Shia–revolves around people confusing two homonyms in the Arabic language. “Mutah” is used in two ways:

1) Mutah Al-Nisa: temporary marriage with women

2) Mutah Al-Hajj: A type of religious pilgramage in which one performs a modified version of Umrah and Hajj. The more common name for this type of pilgramage is tamattu’ (and hence the confusion).

Mutah Al-Nisa translates to “pleasure of the women” and this needs no explanation. As for Mutah Al-Hajj, this refers to the pleasure of this modified form of pilgramage. In Mutah Al-Hajj, the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) allowed relaxation of the Ihram and other duties, thereby making the pilgramage more enjoyable and pleasurable to the believer. It is for this reason that it is referred to as Mutah Al-Hajj.

Many of the Hadith that the Shia bring up that use the word “Mutah” are actually referring to Mutah Al-Hajj, and have nothing to do with Mutah Al-Nisa. Thus, a Sunni follower should not be caught off-guard when the Shia propagandists take Hadith out of context, pretending it refers to Mutah Al-Nisa when it really refers to Mutah Al-Hajj.

mashAllah you are copy paste master

“One who engages in Mutah once in his lifetime reaches the status of Imam Al-Hussain. One who engages in it twice becomes equal in status to Imam Al-Hasan. The one who performs it three times reaches the position of Imam Ali. And he who practices it four times acquires the level and position of the Prophet Muhammad.”

(Furoo al-Kafi)

asked my friend to check this hadith if it is really in Furoo al-Kafi ( he has al-Kafi)

this hadith does not exist in Furoo al-Kafi

´This hadith exist only in nasibi sites!!!

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æóÇáúãõÍúÕóäóÜÊõ ãöäó ÇáäøöÓóÂÁö ÅöáÇøó ãóÇ ãóáóßúÊó ÃóíúãóÜäõßõãú ßöÊóÜÈó Çááøóåö Úóáóíúßõãú æóÃõÍöáøó áóßõãú ãøóÇ æóÑóÇÁó Ðóáößõãú Ãóä ÊóÈúÊóÛõæÇú ÈöÃóãúæóáößõãú ãøõÍúÕöäöíäó ÛóíúÑó ãõÓóÜÝöÍöíäó ÝóãóÇ ÇÓúÊóãúÊóÚúÊõãú Èöåö ãöäúåõäøó ÝóÜóÇÊõæåõäøó ÃõÌõæÑóåõäøó ÝóÑöíÖóÉð æóáÇó ÌõäóÇÍó Úóáóíúßõãú ÝöíãóÇ ÊóÑóÇÖóíúÊõãú Èöåö ãöä ÈóÚúÏö ÇáúÝóÑöíÖóÉö Åöäøó Çááøóåó ßóÇäó ÚóáöíãÇð ÍóßöíãÇð

(24. Also (forbidden are) women already married, except those (slaves) whom your right hands possess. Thus has Allah ordained for you. All others are lawful, provided you seek them (with a dowry) from your property, desiring chastity, not fornication. So with those among them whom you have enjoyed, give them their required due, but if you agree mutually (to give more) after the requirement (has been determined), there is no sin on you. Surely, Allah is Ever All-Knowing, All-Wise.)

Mujahid stated that, (So with those among them whom you have enjoyed, give them their required due,) was revealed about the Mut`ah marriage. A Mut`ah marriage is a marriage that ends upon a predeterminied date.

Tafsir Ibn Kathir, Tafsir of Surah 4, Verse 24

Quran [4:24] (Translation by Ibn Kathir)

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Oh God, your talking about that hadith?? It's in the Chapter of HAJJ!! lol...it's even categorized in the section of HAJJ AL TAMATTU3... if you have the book why do you quote from the internet? for a shortcut? that's not very logical...please dont blame me for thinking that you are just lying right now, because if you had the book you wouldnt misquote the hadith like that, unless you really are just lazy...it says "tamatta3naa" in the chapter of hajj, so he is referring to Hajj al tamattu3...just read the hadith before it and you'll see In Shaa' Allaah...Narrated Jabir Ibn 'AbdiLaah: "7attaa idhaa kaana yawmul tarwiyati fa ah-hiloo bi BILHAJJ, waj'alool latee qadimtum bihaa MUT'AH!!! do you see know? that hadith explicitly mentions Hajj and the work Mut'ah only! so that's how they used to refer to Hajj al tamattu'...dont be so closed minded...if it was about Nikah al Mut'ah then it would be in the book of Nikah with the other hadith that shi'ah love to run with...Im glad your family is sunni, may Allaah guide you through them, my whole family were Zaidies but Al7amduliLaah they are with the Jamaa'ah now...

Yes, the hadith I quoted is in BOTH kitab al tafsir and the book of hajj as well (in my previous post, i quoted from kitab al tafsir WITH THE CORRECT REFEReNCE). Bukhari included this hadith under the section of hajj because it was his opinion that this hadith refers to only to hajj at tamatu, however other sunni scholars have been of the opinion that this hadith refers to nikah muta as well. Imran bin hussain believed both forms of muta were permissible, muta of hajj as well as nikah mutah. Based on this narration and others, according to Abu Ishaq Thalabi in al-kashaf al-bayan (under the commentary of 4:24):-

‘Nobody allowed Nikah al-Mut’ah except Imran bin Husain, Ibn Abbas, and some Sahaba and a group of Ahlulbayt’.

So, what I was saying was, Imran bin Hussain was of the opinion that Umar outlawed both forms of Muta including Hajj at tamatu and Nikah Muta This is also the opnion of a minority of sunnis including thalabi and abu bakr al tartusi etc. Even if I agree with you, according to Imran bin Hussain, Umar only banned hajj at tamatu, is there any verse in the quran which abrogates surah 2:196? On what bases did Umar do that?

Hence basically the opinion of ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain was that Umar outlawed both hajj at tamatu and nikah muta, as we read in sahih muslim:-

"Abu Nadra reported: While I was in the company of Jabir b. Abdullah, a person came to him and said that Ibn 'Abbas and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'as (Tamattu' of Hajj and Tamattu' with women), whereupon Jabir said: We used to do these two during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him). Umar then forbade us to do them, and so we did not revert to them."

However, I understand that some other hadith in bukhari and muslim mention that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) banned mutah, but we dont believe that bukhari is authentic, my only point was that the opinion of Shias is shared by some companions according to the Bakri sources, and that ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain amongst others did not believe that Prophet (pbuh) had banned muta even after Umar had given his verdict. They believed that Umar did what his own mind suggessted.

Thanks and Peace be on you

Edited by BlackWave
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Yes, the hadith I quoted is in BOTH kitab al tafsir and the book of hajj as well (in my previous post, i quoted from kitab al tafsir WITH THE CORRECT REFEReNCE). Bukhari included this hadith under the section of hajj because it was his opinion that this hadith refers to only to hajj at tamatu, however other sunni scholars have been of the opinion that this hadith refers to nikah muta as well. Imran bin hussain believed both forms of muta were permissible, muta of hajj as well as nikah mutah. Based on this narration and others, according to Abu Ishaq Thalabi in al-kashaf al-bayan (under the commentary of 4:24):-

‘Nobody allowed Nikah al-Mut’ah except Imran bin Husain, Ibn Abbas, and some Sahaba and a group of Ahlulbayt’.

So, what I was saying was, Imran bin Hussain was of the opinion that Umar outlawed both forms of Muta including Hajj at tamatu and Nikah Muta This is also the opnion of a minority of sunnis including thalabi and abu bakr al tartusi etc. Even if I agree with you, according to Imran bin Hussain, Umar only banned hajj at tamatu, is there any verse in the quran which abrogates surah 2:196? On what bases did Umar do that?

Hence basically the opinion of ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain was that Umar outlawed both hajj at tamatu and nikah muta, as we read in sahih muslim:-

"Abu Nadra reported: While I was in the company of Jabir b. Abdullah, a person came to him and said that Ibn 'Abbas and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'as (Tamattu' of Hajj and Tamattu' with women), whereupon Jabir said: We used to do these two during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him). Umar then forbade us to do them, and so we did not revert to them."

However, I understand that some other hadith in bukhari and muslim mention that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) banned mutah, but we dont believe that bukhari is authentic, my only point was that the opinion of Shias is shared by some companions according to the Bakri sources, and that ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain amongst others did not believe that Prophet (pbuh) had banned muta even after Umar had given his verdict. They believed that Umar did what his own mind suggessted.

Thanks and Peace be on you

so you only believe that it is authentic when it suits you? what makes one authentic and the other not authentic...the narrations from Ali and other companions radhi Allaahu 'anhum are so many and from so many chains...do you know how meticulously hadith are authenticated? you cant just throw that away upon a whim... every single narration can be easily reconciled if you just stop being so biased...The companions who THOUGHT that it was Umar who banned it, were not aware that the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam banned it...again, sunnis dont believe in infallibility...and whats this saying that the hadith is also in Kitab al tafseer? Im staring at bukhari right now and it's not in Kitab al tafsir...Umar even said in Ibn Maja's collection that if anyone brings witnesses to the validity of Mut'ah he would retract it...Umar ALWAYS asked for witnesses when it came to religious matters...it's that simple man...secondly, how come ALi did not reinstate Mut'ah while he was Khalifah? was he still afraid of Umar and AbuBakr while they were dead? lol no offense man, I want to continue this debate with civility and good manners In Shaa' ALlaah...why do you say that Ibn Abbas believed that mut'ah was not abrogated? dont you know that he eventually changed his verdict? why would you neglect to mentions that? half truths are haram in both our beliefs...I dont know much about Hajj al Tamattu' but it is possible that Umar Radhi Allaahu 'anhu forbade people from doing it until they understood it because some might invalidate their hajj by not knowing the implications...and again, we must use our intellects...If someone was investigating a murder, or theft or vandalism or anything, one of the first things they look for is MOTIVE...and I see no motive whatsoever for Umar or anyone else banning something as innocuous as Hajj al Tammattu3...and Umar is known in our traditions to be Al Farooq...someone who went to great lengths, with good intentions to keep people away from sin...like what when he expelled the handsome man who was making girls write poetry about how they wanted to sleep and drink wine with him...and even non muslim historians attest to his virtuousness...there is not a single unbiased non muslim scholar of history who thinks of Umar as a tyrant or anything like that...

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