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Truthseeker786

Mutah Was A Preislamic Practise

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Hey Hozin, ran away from http://www.shiachat....ah/page__st__50 ? :dry:

I did not "run away"...I asked SEVERAL questions that NO ONE could answer...instead they kept changing the subject to Misyar which I personally denounced, and even that didnt stop them from avoiding my questions...not only that, but one guy (logic I think) said that SHi'ah scholars majority opinion is that mut'ah with prostitution is not haram, just strongly disliked, he accused me of using hadith out of context, and even when another shi'i posted the hadith, he still wouldnt comment on it...Ja'far as Sadiq did not like Mut'ah for his family members! a sunnah that clears sins, saves from shirk, and he doesnt like it! also he kept repeating that mut'ah is not part of the Shi'i faith and someone who denies it and says it is haram would still be considered Shi'i...I posted the hadith for him about the qualities of a believer (according to Shi'ism) and he just demanded a scanned copy from the book lol...so I heard all I needed to hear... not to mention he said he wanted to cuss me out, said I have a pea sized brain etc...the guy I'm debating here, Black wave, is much more open and nice mannered, so I prefer to talk with him about this topic...

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The Shorter Encyclopedia of Islam also states that Mutah was a common practice among Arab travelers and goes back to the fourth century:

“When a stranger came to a village and had no place to stay, he would marry a woman for a short time so that she would be his partner in bed and take care of his property.”

Caetani also concluded that Mutah in the pagan period was religious prostitution that took place during the occasion of pilgramage.

It is perhaps in Sunniencyclopedia, notin Islamic encyclopedia

Ayesha's testimony about four methods of marriage during the time of Jahiliyya

“Narrated Urwa bin Zubair: Aisha the wife of the Prophet told him that there were four types of marriage during the Pre-Islamic period of ignorance. One type was similar to that of the present day, i.e. a man used to ask somebody else for the hand of a girl under his guardianship or for his daughter's hand, and give her dowry and then marry her. The second type was that a man would say to his wife after she had become clean from her period, "Send for so-and-so and have sexual relations with him." Her husband would then keep away from her and would never sleep with her till she gets pregnant from the other man with whom she was sleeping. When her pregnancy became evident, her husband would sleep with her if he wished. Her husband did so (i.e. let her wife sleep with some other man) so that he might have a child of noble breed. Such marriage was called Al-Istibda. Another type of marriage was that a group of less than ten men would assemble and enter upon a woman, and all of them would have sexual relation with her. If she became pregnant and delivered a child and some days had passed after her delivery, she would send for all of them and none of them would refuse to come, and when they all gathered before her, she would say to them, "You (all) know what you have done, and now I have given birth to a child. So, it is your child, O so-and-so!" naming whoever she liked, and her child would follow him and he could not refuse to take him. The fourth type of marriage was that many people would enter upon a lady and she would never refuse anyone who came to her. Those were the prostitutes who used to fix red flags at their doors as signs, and he who wished, could have sexual intercourse with them. If anyone of them got pregnant and delivered a child, then all those men would be gathered for her and they would call the Qaifs (persons skilled in recognizing the likeness of a child to his father) to them and would let her child follow the man (whom they recognized as his father) and she would let him adhere to him and will be called his son.

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 2 Chapter 37, pages 44-45:

Which type of those four marriages is muta?

Edited by ehlulbejt

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Mutah is also a type of Nikah

Lets see what Sunni Scholars have to say about verse 4:24

We read in Tafseer Qurtubi in the commentary of the verse 4:24

"The majority said that it refers to Nikah al-Mut'ah which existed during the beginning of Islam"

we read in Tafseer Fatah ul Qadeer, page 14

"The majority said that this verse refers to Nikah al-Mut'ah"

We read in Allamah Baghwi's authortiy wotk 'Tafseer Mu'alim al Tanzeel' popularly known as Tafseer Baghwi:

"This verse refers to Mut'ah Nikah, that is to perform Nikah for a specific period".

We read in Tafseer Beydhawi:

"This verse was revealed regarding Mut'ah"

Allamah Abu Muhamad Abdul Haq Haqqani states in 'Tafseer Haqqani':

This verse refers to Nikah al Mut'ah

Ibn Katheer records in Tafseer Ibn Katheer, Volume 1 page 84

"This verse refers to Nikah al-Mutah"

Ibn Katheer also recorded the belief of famed Tabayee namely Mujahid:

"Mujahid said that this (verse) was revealed for Nikah al-Mut'ah"

Imam Ibn Hajar in Al-Ajaeb Fi Bayan al-Asbab records the views of Maqatil bi Sulaiman:

"Maqatil said that it was revealed regarding Mutah"

Imam Nawawi stated in Al-Majmoo Volume 16 page 253

"It has been said about His (Allah's) statement '{Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed}' that referred to Nikah al-Mut'ah"

Now u can see above that sunni scholars are using word Nikah with mutah they are calling it NIKAH AL MUTAH but nowadays some sunnis call mutah fornication and prostitution.

Anyways now i will prove from sunni books that it was umar who was the first one who prohibited mutah

Imam of Ahle Sunnah Abu Auwanah Yaqoob bin Ishaq bin Ibrahim al-Nisaburi al-Isfraeini (d. 316 H) popularly known as Abu Auwanah records the following in his book Mustakhraj Abi Auwanah, Volume 7 page 159 Hadith 2713:

“Yaqoob bin Sufyan - Amr bin Asim – Hamaam – Qatadah - Abi Nadhra said: ‘I said to Jabir bin Abdullah that Ibn Abbas permits Mut’ah while Ibn al-Zubair prohibits it. He (Jabir) replied: ‘It is through me that this hadith has been circulated, I performed Mut’ah along with Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and a verse was revealed regarding it but then when Umar bin al-Khatab become the caliph, he addressed the people and said: ‘The Quran is the same Quran, the apostle is the same apostle, and there existed two types of Mut’ah at the time of Allah's apostle, I forbid both and will punish whoever performs them, one is the Mut’ah of Hajj, surely you have to separate your Hajj from your Umra, and the other is Mut’ah al-Nisa, if I catch any person who is married for an appointed duration (Mut'a), I will certainly stone him (to death).”

The audacious statement of Umar has also been recorded in Mustakhraj Abi Auwanah, Volume 4 page 255 Hadith 2697 in a concise manner

Yazid bin Sinan – Maki bin Ibrahim – Malik – Naf’e – Ibn Umar – Umar said: ‘Two types of Mut’ah existed during Prophet's time, I prohibit both, Mut’ah of Hajj and Mut’ah al-Nisa’.

Imam of Ahle Sunnah Saeed bin Mansur (d. 227 H) records the following admission of Umar in his authority work Sunan Saeed bin Mansur, Volume 1 page 218 Tradition 852:

Saeed – Hushaim - Khalid - Abu Qulabah from Umar bin al-Khatab said: ‘Two types of Mut’ah were there during the time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and I prohibit both and will punish whoever performs it, Mut’ah with women and Mut’ah of Hajj’

its written in Al-Mabsut by Sarkhasi, Volume 4 page 27 Imam Sarkhasi records:

"It is Sahih that Umar prohibited the people from committing Mut'ah and said: 'Two types of Mut'ah existed during the time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and I prohibit people from them, Mut'ah al-Nisa and Mut'ah al-Hajj'".

we read in Kanz al Ummal, Volume 8 page 93 Hadith 45715

"Two types of Mut'ah were present during the lifetime of Rasulullah (s), I prohibit them both, Mut'ah of Nisa and Mut'ah of Hajj"

its written in Tafseer al-Kabeer, Vol 4 pages 42 & 43

Umar said: "Two Mut'ah's existed during Rasulullah's lifetime and I now prohibit both of them."

Qadhi Yahya also acknowledged Mut'ah was prohibited by Umar NOT Rasulullah(s). This is proven from Ahl' ul Sunnah's authority work 'al-Muhazraat' Volume 2 page 214 part 12:

“Yahya Ibn Aktham asked a Shaikh from Basra: ‘Why do you permit Mut'ah?’ He answered: ‘Due to Umar Ibn al-Khattab’. Yahya asked: ‘How is that? Umar was the most strict one against it?’ He answered: ‘Yes, it is a Sahih narration that Umar ascended the pulpit and said: 'Allah and His Prophet permitted you two types of Mut'ah, but I forbid you on both and will punish those who commit the same', so we accepted the testimony of Umar (that Allah and His Prophet permitted it) but we did not accept his prohibition’.”

Now that i have proved from sunni books that mutah is a type of nikah and it was umar who first prohibited mutah and moreover imam ahmad bin hanbal and also imam malik believed in the permissiblity of mutah and also many companions of prophet believed in the permissiblity of mutah even after umar prohibited mutah and some even performed it SO NEXT TIME BEFORE U ACCUSE SHIAS FOR BELIEVING IN THE PERMISSIBLITY OF MUTAH U SHOULD GO AND BLAME IMAM AHMAD BIN HANBAL AND IMAM MALIK FIRST THEN U SHOULD GO AND BLAME ALL COMPANIONS WHO BELIEVED IN THE PERMISSIBLITY OF MUTAH EVEN AFTER UMAR PROHIBITED MUTAH AND SOME EVEN PERFORMED IT ALLAHUMMA SALLE ALA MUHAMMADIN WA ALE MUHAMMAD.

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Mutah is also a type of Nikah

Lets see what Sunni Scholars have to say about verse 4:24

We read in Tafseer Qurtubi in the commentary of the verse 4:24

"The majority said that it refers to Nikah al-Mut'ah which existed during the beginning of Islam"

we read in Tafseer Fatah ul Qadeer, page 14

"The majority said that this verse refers to Nikah al-Mut'ah"

We read in Allamah Baghwi's authortiy wotk 'Tafseer Mu'alim al Tanzeel' popularly known as Tafseer Baghwi:

"This verse refers to Mut'ah Nikah, that is to perform Nikah for a specific period".

We read in Tafseer Beydhawi:

"This verse was revealed regarding Mut'ah"

Allamah Abu Muhamad Abdul Haq Haqqani states in 'Tafseer Haqqani':

This verse refers to Nikah al Mut'ah

Ibn Katheer records in Tafseer Ibn Katheer, Volume 1 page 84

"This verse refers to Nikah al-Mutah"

Ibn Katheer also recorded the belief of famed Tabayee namely Mujahid:

"Mujahid said that this (verse) was revealed for Nikah al-Mut'ah"

Imam Ibn Hajar in Al-Ajaeb Fi Bayan al-Asbab records the views of Maqatil bi Sulaiman:

"Maqatil said that it was revealed regarding Mutah"

Imam Nawawi stated in Al-Majmoo Volume 16 page 253

"It has been said about His (Allah's) statement '{Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed}' that referred to Nikah al-Mut'ah"

Now u can see above that sunni scholars are using word Nikah with mutah they are calling it NIKAH AL MUTAH but nowadays some sunnis call mutah fornication and prostitution.

Anyways now i will prove from sunni books that it was umar who was the first one who prohibited mutah

Imam of Ahle Sunnah Abu Auwanah Yaqoob bin Ishaq bin Ibrahim al-Nisaburi al-Isfraeini (d. 316 H) popularly known as Abu Auwanah records the following in his book Mustakhraj Abi Auwanah, Volume 7 page 159 Hadith 2713:

“Yaqoob bin Sufyan - Amr bin Asim – Hamaam – Qatadah - Abi Nadhra said: ‘I said to Jabir bin Abdullah that Ibn Abbas permits Mut’ah while Ibn al-Zubair prohibits it. He (Jabir) replied: ‘It is through me that this hadith has been circulated, I performed Mut’ah along with Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and a verse was revealed regarding it but then when Umar bin al-Khatab become the caliph, he addressed the people and said: ‘The Quran is the same Quran, the apostle is the same apostle, and there existed two types of Mut’ah at the time of Allah's apostle, I forbid both and will punish whoever performs them, one is the Mut’ah of Hajj, surely you have to separate your Hajj from your Umra, and the other is Mut’ah al-Nisa, if I catch any person who is married for an appointed duration (Mut'a), I will certainly stone him (to death).”

The audacious statement of Umar has also been recorded in Mustakhraj Abi Auwanah, Volume 4 page 255 Hadith 2697 in a concise manner

Yazid bin Sinan – Maki bin Ibrahim – Malik – Naf’e – Ibn Umar – Umar said: ‘Two types of Mut’ah existed during Prophet's time, I prohibit both, Mut’ah of Hajj and Mut’ah al-Nisa’.

Imam of Ahle Sunnah Saeed bin Mansur (d. 227 H) records the following admission of Umar in his authority work Sunan Saeed bin Mansur, Volume 1 page 218 Tradition 852:

Saeed – Hushaim - Khalid - Abu Qulabah from Umar bin al-Khatab said: ‘Two types of Mut’ah were there during the time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and I prohibit both and will punish whoever performs it, Mut’ah with women and Mut’ah of Hajj’

its written in Al-Mabsut by Sarkhasi, Volume 4 page 27 Imam Sarkhasi records:

"It is Sahih that Umar prohibited the people from committing Mut'ah and said: 'Two types of Mut'ah existed during the time of Allah's Messenger (pbuh) and I prohibit people from them, Mut'ah al-Nisa and Mut'ah al-Hajj'".

we read in Kanz al Ummal, Volume 8 page 93 Hadith 45715

"Two types of Mut'ah were present during the lifetime of Rasulullah (s), I prohibit them both, Mut'ah of Nisa and Mut'ah of Hajj"

its written in Tafseer al-Kabeer, Vol 4 pages 42 & 43

Umar said: "Two Mut'ah's existed during Rasulullah's lifetime and I now prohibit both of them."

Qadhi Yahya also acknowledged Mut'ah was prohibited by Umar NOT Rasulullah(s). This is proven from Ahl' ul Sunnah's authority work 'al-Muhazraat' Volume 2 page 214 part 12:

“Yahya Ibn Aktham asked a Shaikh from Basra: ‘Why do you permit Mut'ah?’ He answered: ‘Due to Umar Ibn al-Khattab’. Yahya asked: ‘How is that? Umar was the most strict one against it?’ He answered: ‘Yes, it is a Sahih narration that Umar ascended the pulpit and said: 'Allah and His Prophet permitted you two types of Mut'ah, but I forbid you on both and will punish those who commit the same', so we accepted the testimony of Umar (that Allah and His Prophet permitted it) but we did not accept his prohibition’.”

Now that i have proved from sunni books that mutah is a type of nikah and it was umar who first prohibited mutah and moreover imam ahmad bin hanbal and also imam malik believed in the permissiblity of mutah and also many companions of prophet believed in the permissiblity of mutah even after umar prohibited mutah and some even performed it SO NEXT TIME BEFORE U ACCUSE SHIAS FOR BELIEVING IN THE PERMISSIBLITY OF MUTAH U SHOULD GO AND BLAME IMAM AHMAD BIN HANBAL AND IMAM MALIK FIRST THEN U SHOULD GO AND BLAME ALL COMPANIONS WHO BELIEVED IN THE PERMISSIBLITY OF MUTAH EVEN AFTER UMAR PROHIBITED MUTAH AND SOME EVEN PERFORMED IT ALLAHUMMA SALLE ALA MUHAMMADIN WA ALE MUHAMMAD.

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so you only believe that it is authentic when it suits you? what makes one authentic and the other not authentic...the narrations from Ali and other companions radhi Allaahu 'anhum are so many and from so many chains...do you know how meticulously hadith are authenticated? you cant just throw that away upon a whim... every single narration can be easily reconciled if you just stop being so biased...The companions who THOUGHT that it was Umar who banned it, were not aware that the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam banned it...again, sunnis dont believe in infallibility...and whats this saying that the hadith is also in Kitab al tafseer? Im staring at bukhari right now and it's not in Kitab al tafsir...Umar even said in Ibn Maja's collection that if anyone brings witnesses to the validity of Mut'ah he would retract it...Umar ALWAYS asked for witnesses when it came to religious matters...it's that simple man...secondly, how come ALi did not reinstate Mut'ah while he was Khalifah? was he still afraid of Umar and AbuBakr while they were dead? lol no offense man, I want to continue this debate with civility and good manners In Shaa' ALlaah...why do you say that Ibn Abbas believed that mut'ah was not abrogated? dont you know that he eventually changed his verdict? why would you neglect to mentions that? half truths are haram in both our beliefs...I dont know much about Hajj al Tamattu' but it is possible that Umar Radhi Allaahu 'anhu forbade people from doing it until they understood it because some might invalidate their hajj by not knowing the implications...and again, we must use our intellects...If someone was investigating a murder, or theft or vandalism or anything, one of the first things they look for is MOTIVE...and I see no motive whatsoever for Umar or anyone else banning something as innocuous as Hajj al Tammattu3...and Umar is known in our traditions to be Al Farooq...someone who went to great lengths, with good intentions to keep people away from sin...like what when he expelled the handsome man who was making girls write poetry about how they wanted to sleep and drink wine with him...and even non muslim historians attest to his virtuousness...there is not a single unbiased non muslim scholar of history who thinks of Umar as a tyrant or anything like that...

Pity On you you do not have any proof except some fabricated Hadeeth which forbids Mut'a and conjecture( Lo!! conjecture is forbidden in contrast of Qur'an and sunna) , Where as Qur'an , Ahdeeth and history testifies The validity of Mut'a.

Yes, the hadith I quoted is in BOTH kitab al tafsir and the book of hajj as well (in my previous post, i quoted from kitab al tafsir WITH THE CORRECT REFEReNCE). Bukhari included this hadith under the section of hajj because it was his opinion that this hadith refers to only to hajj at tamatu, however other sunni scholars have been of the opinion that this hadith refers to nikah muta as well. Imran bin hussain believed both forms of muta were permissible, muta of hajj as well as nikah mutah. Based on this narration and others, according to Abu Ishaq Thalabi in al-kashaf al-bayan (under the commentary of 4:24):-

‘Nobody allowed Nikah al-Mut’ah except Imran bin Husain, Ibn Abbas, and some Sahaba and a group of Ahlulbayt’.

So, what I was saying was, Imran bin Hussain was of the opinion that Umar outlawed both forms of Muta including Hajj at tamatu and Nikah Muta This is also the opnion of a minority of sunnis including thalabi and abu bakr al tartusi etc. Even if I agree with you, according to Imran bin Hussain, Umar only banned hajj at tamatu, is there any verse in the quran which abrogates surah 2:196? On what bases did Umar do that?

Hence basically the opinion of ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain was that Umar outlawed both hajj at tamatu and nikah muta, as we read in sahih muslim:-

"Abu Nadra reported: While I was in the company of Jabir b. Abdullah, a person came to him and said that Ibn 'Abbas and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'as (Tamattu' of Hajj and Tamattu' with women), whereupon Jabir said: We used to do these two during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him). Umar then forbade us to do them, and so we did not revert to them."

However, I understand that some other hadith in bukhari and muslim mention that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) banned mutah, but we dont believe that bukhari is authentic, my only point was that the opinion of Shias is shared by some companions according to the Bakri sources, and that ibn Abbas and Imran bin Hussain amongst others did not believe that Prophet (pbuh) had banned muta even after Umar had given his verdict. They believed that Umar did what his own mind suggessted.

Thanks and Peace be on you

Brother You have Quoted a genuine hadeeth but due to his ignorance he is saying it s about Hajj e Tamattu!

He do not know the fraud of Salafis/sunnis As you can see The English translator very cunningly added the word "Hajj-at-Tamatu". to deceive the ignorant people!!

But In arabic there is no such word as evident:

حدثنا مسدد حدثنا يحيى عن عمران أبي بكر حدثنا أبو رجاء عن عمران بن حصين رضي الله عنهما قال أنزلت آية المتعة في كتاب اللهففعلناها مع رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم ولم ينزل قرآن يحرمه ولم ينه عنها حتى مات قال رجل برأيه ما شا

( Kitab at-tafseer Sahih al Bukhari)

I have highlighted the text with red. you can clearly see there is no word Hajj at Tamatu!!!!. this is the utmost dishonesty.The Bukhari also very cunningly put it under Hajj section to deceive the reader. There are also some ahadeeth which Bukhari placed in a position to suit his dishonesty.

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  • Mutah Forbidden in Stages

The reality is that Mutah was permissible in the early days of Islam, but was eventually banned categorically by the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم). This is very similar to wine, which was at first permissible in Islam, and it was only later in time that the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) forbade it. The prohibitions against wine were expounded slowly over a period of time. In the beginning, drinking wine was permissible and many of the Sahabah did it. Then, the Quran declared that wine was harmful and bad. After some more time, the Quran forbade approaching prayer whilst drunk. After the people had become accustomed to this, it was only then that they were ready so that Allah and His Messenger (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) completely forbade wine.

Why did the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) first allow wine and then later forbid it? This was only because Islam was revealed in stages, and the faith was going through a transitional period, with the Shariah being expounded during the life-span of the Prophet. If the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) had not banned wine in stages, and instead had he (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) simply banned wine immediately, it would have been very hard for the early Muslims who were accustomed to wine-drinking, which was a hobby of the pagan Arabs. Many of them were early converts and their faith was weak. They had an addiction to wine, and many of them would become apostates if wine was suddenly banned outright. So, the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) banned wine in gradual stages so that it was easier on the people.

Likewise, Mutah was a hobby of the pagan Arabs. Hence, it was not forbidden in the beginning. This is because Islam was in a transitional stage. The Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) initially allowed Mutah on a few occassions because there were many new converts to Islam who had weak faith. They were often in times of war away from their wives, in which their desires got the best of them since they were not accustomed to the chastity of Islam. In order to prevent the apostacy of these new converts over the issue of Mutah, the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) did not forbid Mutah immediately. (And these are the Hadith which the Shia quote to “prove” that Sunnis believe in the permissibility of Mutah.)

Once the Muslims became stronger in faith, the Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) categorically banned the practise of Mutah.

The Shorter Encyclopedia of Islam also states that Mutah was a common practice among Arab travelers and goes back to the fourth century:

“When a stranger came to a village and had no place to stay, he would marry a woman for a short time so that she would be his partner in bed and take care of his property.”

Caetani also concluded that Mutah in the pagan period was religious prostitution that took place during the occasion of pilgramage.

Thus, Mutah was a loose sexual practice during the pre-Islamic days of ignorance in Arabia. Being an old and established institution, it continued during the early days of Islam. The Prophet (صلّى الله عليه وآله وسلّم) also allowed it temporarily on two other occasions, but only under strict, exceptional conditions during the conquest of Khaybar and during the conquest of Mecca - fearing that those Muslims whose faith was not yet strong might commit adultery during Jihad.

The Shia widely quote Hadith in relation to these events to support their continued belief in Mutah. Sunnis accept these Hadith but add that they happened before all of the revelations of the Quran were revealed and the religion completed. Historians and commentators on the Quran and Hadith agree that Islam eradicated most social evils in a gradual way. It is well known that practices like gambling, drinking, and the eating of pork and blood were common during the early days but were gradually prohibited. Likewise, it seems probable that Mutah was first forbidden to those at Khaybar in the year 7 A.H. and was then completely prohibited to all upon the conquest of Mecca in 8 A.H.

Salamu Alaikum brother you posted this piece of information but you have not provided atleast one evidence to support your claims, I disagree with mutah being a pre-islamic practice and I am willing to disprove you using the Quran and hadiths from the sunni sources unless you want to use the time to edit your work and provide references for all your claims.

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None of them is muta! If you are insinuating the fourth is then you are wrong as a woman can refuse where as you have stated in the Hadith she does not refuse! Also no woman who has had muta put a red flag!

Ayesha's testimony about four methods of marriage during the time of Jahiliyya

“Narrated Urwa bin Zubair: Aisha the wife of the Prophet told him that there were four types of marriage during the Pre-Islamic period of ignorance. One type was similar to that of the present day, i.e. a man used to ask somebody else for the hand of a girl under his guardianship or for his daughter's hand, and give her dowry and then marry her. The second type was that a man would say to his wife after she had become clean from her period, "Send for so-and-so and have sexual relations with him." Her husband would then keep away from her and would never sleep with her till she gets pregnant from the other man with whom she was sleeping. When her pregnancy became evident, her husband would sleep with her if he wished. Her husband did so (i.e. let her wife sleep with some other man) so that he might have a child of noble breed. Such marriage was called Al-Istibda. Another type of marriage was that a group of less than ten men would assemble and enter upon a woman, and all of them would have sexual relation with her. If she became pregnant and delivered a child and some days had passed after her delivery, she would send for all of them and none of them would refuse to come, and when they all gathered before her, she would say to them, "You (all) know what you have done, and now I have given birth to a child. So, it is your child, O so-and-so!" naming whoever she liked, and her child would follow him and he could not refuse to take him. The fourth type of marriage was that many people would enter upon a lady and she would never refuse anyone who came to her. Those were the prostitutes who used to fix red flags at their doors as signs, and he who wished, could have sexual intercourse with them. If anyone of them got pregnant and delivered a child, then all those men would be gathered for her and they would call the Qaifs (persons skilled in recognizing the likeness of a child to his father) to them and would let her child follow the man (whom they recognized as his father) and she would let him adhere to him and will be called his son.

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 2 Chapter 37, pages 44-45:

Which type of those four marriages is muta?

Edited by shah1

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I haven't read all this but I think of it like this:

In regular "marriage" what exactly allows you to have sexual relations with at times a total stranger, a son or daughter of another person?

A few words , that's all

So there really isn't anything "shameful" about the process itself

Being temporary doesn't mean one is oblivious to their responsibilities,

Its not a free ticket to abuse.

Its also not for everyone and not for every case, so questions like "would you allow your daughter to do muta?" Are just dumb

How about "would you let your daughter have sexual relations at all (in marriage)?" That too is hard for any father, doesn't make marriage wrong just because one feels that way.

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Hozin, on 26 Feb 2012 - 11:35 PM, said:

first of all..."so when you have contracted temporary marriage with them..." where in the world did you get this translation??? you are making yourself seem so extremely desperate by coming up with your own translation...the word "istamta3tum" does not only denote YOUR concept of mut'ah, IT HAS A LINGUISTIC MEANING! Just like "mataa3un lakum wa li an3aamikum"...dont try to monopolize the ayaat of Allaah...that ayah was not only pertaining to Mut'ah, it is still valid!! because when it says "fa mastamta3tum bihi.." it can even mean the lawful PERMENANT nika7 so it doesnt need naskh! all it needs is for to accept that it is a shameful act, which the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam never did, and was only in response to the companions fearing zinaa and wanting to castrate themselves out of their piety....in fact the ayah itself has conditions...Allaah says "seeking CHASTITY" thats the opposite of MUT'AH! mut'ah does not allow a person to be chaste because it means "sexual enjoyment"...a person who goes around making day long or week long or month long contracts for sex is not a chaste person! does chastity in your definition only require that you have your sex documented?

 

If the ayat is referring to nikkah then chastity would still be lost because people have sex when theyre married if your definition was correct.

 

But marriage whether temporary or permanent is seeking chastity.

 

So obviously now that your explanation has been proven flawed this ayat still refers to mutah.

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first of all..."so when you have contracted temporary marriage with them..." where in the world did you get this translation??? you are making yourself seem so extremely desperate by coming up with your own translation...the word "istamta3tum" does not only denote YOUR concept of mut'ah, IT HAS A LINGUISTIC MEANING! Just like "mataa3un lakum wa li an3aamikum"...dont try to monopolize the ayaat of Allaah...that ayah was not only pertaining to Mut'ah, it is still valid!! because when it says "fa mastamta3tum bihi.." it can even mean the lawful PERMENANT nika7 so it doesnt need naskh! all it needs is for to accept that it is a shameful act, which the Prophet Sul Allaahu 'alaihi wa Sallam never did, and was only in response to the companions fearing zinaa and wanting to castrate themselves out of their piety....in fact the ayah itself has conditions...Allaah says "seeking CHASTITY" thats the opposite of MUT'AH! mut'ah does not allow a person to be chaste because it means "sexual enjoyment"...a person who goes around making day long or week long or month long contracts for sex is not a chaste person! does chastity in your definition only require that you have your sex documented?

 

The root of istimta3tum is the three letter root, mim, ta, ayn .

 

Who said this, Many, Many scholars and University of Leeds who made the site

corpus.quran.com, you've probably heard of it.

 

The 23rd word of verse (4:24) is divided into 2 morphological segments. A verb and subject pronoun. The form X perfect verb (فعل ماض) is second person masculine plural. The verb's triliteral root is mīm tā ʿayn (م ت ع). The suffix (التاء) is an attached subject pronoun.

 

 

 

Here is the link

 

http://corpus.quran.com/wordmorphology.jsp?location=(4:24:23)

 

isti - mta3 - t - um

 

isti is the present perfect vowel tense article

t is ta marbuta (the feminine ta )

um is the 2nd person plural pronoun

 

This is basic Arabic grammar. 

 

What is left, mim, ta, a3n (ayn)

 

Add the wa vowel to mim, you get muta3 (mutah)

 

To the Arabs of the time it was clear, as it is clear to those who know Arabic 

mutah was referred to as mutah and permenant marriage was reffered to as zawajtul nikah or simply nikah for short as it is today. Two different words for two different kinds of marriage. The Arabs before Islam had many different types of marriages,

these were the only three  that were made halal by Rasoulallah(p.b.u.h) and Quran. Zawajtul Nikah, Mulk Al Yamin (marriage to slave girl(s), and Mutah. Each one of these types of marriages have their own conditions and aqd (contract) 

 

Translation note: Mulk Al Yamin does not really mean 'slave girls' but there is not word in English with an equivalent meaning.

That's the best I could do but that's another subject. 

 

Zawajtul nikah and Mulk Al Yamin were mentioned in the previous ayats, and this ayat refers to mutah. 

The entire ayat is talking about marriage, that is the context, that is clear. 

 

The 'fa' that is preceeding this statement is a conjunctive, meaning that before this, Quran was discussing the marriage of Mulk Al Yamin, and now is discussing the marriage of Mutah. So the Quran is saying that these are parts of the same subject, marriage. 

 

The correct translation of the ayat is 

 

'As for those women whom you(plural you)  do or have done mutah with (istimta3tum), it is obligatory for you to give them

their reward (dowry)'

 

I stand by this translation, this is the correct translation. Period. 

 

And as the Quran has allowed mutah in this ayat, no one has the right to make it forbidden. 

Edited by Abu Hadi

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While discussing this riveting topic, we should also include topic in the conversation:

 

"The rest of the wives of the Prophet refused for anyone to enter upon them on the basis of that type of breast-feeding, meaning breast-feeding of an adult. They said to 'Aishah: 'By Allah, we think that this is a concession which the Messenger of Allah granted only to Salim. No one will enter upon us, nor see us on the basis of this type of breast-feeding.'"
 
Zainab bint Abu Salamah narrated that her mother Umm Salamah, the wife of the Prophet, used to say
Sunan an-Nasa'i
Book 26, Hadith 130
 
It was narrated that 'Urwah said:
Sunan an-Nasa'i
Book 26, Hadith 129
 
Is this permitted in Sunni Islam? Looks like this option was availed by ....

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