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In the Name of God بسم الله

Quran 4:24: "right Hand Possesses"?

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Salaams,

I was reading some forums and i came across this verse from the Quran, 4:24:

"And all married women except those whom your right hands possess (this is) Allah's ordinance to you, and lawful for you are (all women) besides those, provided that you seek (them) with your property, taking (them) in marriage not committing fornication. Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed; and there is no blame on you about what you mutually agree after what is appointed; surely Allah is Knowing, Wise".

Im having trouble understanding this verse.

1) can the "right hand possesses" still have a husband while under her master?

2) what happens to the husband?

3) what happens to the children of the woman and her first husband?

4) Also, this verse refers to the marrying of the slaves (right hand), does that mean that if the captive is married she is still halaal for the owner?

Please help me understand this verse because if the slave is already married then gets married to the owner, isnt that polygamy and zina? does it make the last marriage void? and taking away the rights of the husband and the slave wife?

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From my study into the topic, I look back to what Mohammad did - if a place was conquered in the name of Allah there, then people would be taken slaves, or executed, or in a few cases left to live their lives but also paying jityza tax. 

So, females who were living in the conquered land, they were often talen as captives or forcibly married to an Islamic believer, and even before their current husbands had been dealt with (one way or another), it was considered OK to force the captive women to have sex with her new 'husband.' 

One thing I'm not sure about is whether this would count as marriage, since it seems like maybe it's forcing the woman to commit adultery, and it's not a covenant relationshop between a consenting male and female (covenant relationships take personal vows from both parties). I think sexual slavery is the better term for it. 

Is sexual slavery OK?  When the Most High comes and we see Him on earth, if He finds us keeping sex slaves, will we be embarrassed before Him or feel righteous in the act? I wonder what Mohammad felt about it. 

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On 12/02/2017 at 1:48 AM, Channah said:

From my study into the topic, I look back to what Mohammad did - if a place was conquered in the name of Allah there, then people would be taken slaves, or executed, or in a few cases left to live their lives but also paying jityza tax. 

So, females who were living in the conquered land, they were often talen as captives or forcibly married to an Islamic believer, and even before their current husbands had been dealt with (one way or another), it was considered OK to force the captive women to have sex with her new 'husband.' 

One thing I'm not sure about is whether this would count as marriage, since it seems like maybe it's forcing the woman to commit adultery, and it's not a covenant relationshop between a consenting male and female (covenant relationships take personal vows from both parties). I think sexual slavery is the better term for it. 

Is sexual slavery OK?  When the Most High comes and we see Him on earth, if He finds us keeping sex slaves, will we be embarrassed before Him or feel righteous in the act? I wonder what Mohammad felt about it. 

There is no thing such as Force in Islam. 

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Salam

http://www.askthesheikh.com/do-quranic-verses-on-slavery-apply-today/

Since the directives of the Quran point to the freedom of all slaves, and now that slavery is abolished internationally, there is no need to reinstate it. It is actually against the spirit of the Quranic code.The Quran has been revealed to educate people and efface the evil practices from the human race. One cannot say that after these evils are removed then the Quran loses its eternal nature. The Quran speaks immensely against idolatry; does that mean that if everyone believes in the Quran and idolatry is vanished, then the Quran loses its universality?

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