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In the Name of God بسم الله
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The Majestic "We"...

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for some odd reason, I cannot completely accept the simplistic answer about the usage of "we" referring to God in the Quran. "We" did this or "We" did that.

When it comes to certain specific actions it seems God uses "We," whereas in regards to certain other specific actions God uses a singular noun.

I wonder, are there hadiths that clear this issue very vividly?

Has there been an in-depth discussion on this issue in the past? amongst scholars?

I would like to know as much as I can about this "majestic" "we" and your help is appreciated.

Thank you

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You mean this simplistic answer?:

Why Allah has used plural pronouns for Himself?

Question: When the Almighty Allah is One, unique and peerless, and knows about His oneness, then why in the Holy Quran he uses the plural pronoun (We) for Himself?

Answer: The use of first person plural noun (We) is the sign of greatness and magnificence of the person (entity) who is speaking and this use is most appropriate and befitting to Allah. Arabs say that the reason for the use of first person plural noun is considered as proof of greatness that great people generally are not alone. The servants, attendants and other people are always around them to fulfill their needs. That is why they always used the pronoun We and the use of this word is a metaphor for greatness.

In this respect, wherever in the words of Allah plural noun is used it reminds us about His greatness and magnificence and we start thinking about those apparent and hidden powers of the universe, which are subordinate to Him. In this way our belief in Tauheed become stronger and our attention towards the sanctified self becomes more.


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I dont think its simplistic at all. But there is another tafsir which is backed by a few hadith. From Al-Mizan on verse 2:57:

Abu l-Hasan al-MÄhdÄ« (a.s.) said about the words of AllÄh: and they did not do Us any harm but they did harm their own selves: "Surely AllÄh is too powerful and too unassailable to be harmed or to ascribe any harm to Himself. But He has joined us to Himself and took any injustice done to us as an injustice done to Him, and treated our love as His love; then He revealed it in a (verse of the) Qur�Än to His Prophet, and said: and they did not do Us any harm, but they did harm their own selves. The narrator says: "I said, `This is the revelation?' He said, `Yes."' (al- KÄfi )

The author says: Nearly the same thing has been narrated from al-Baqir (a.s.).

". . . too unassailable to be harmed ": It is the explanation of the Qur�Änic expression, "they did not do Us any harm"; the next sentence, "or to ascribe any harm to Himself", rejects also the opposite proposition. AllÄh can neither be harmed nor does He do any injustice Himself. Why did the narrator ask the ques�tion, "This is the revelation?" Obviously, for a negative sentence to be plausible there should be a real or hypothetic possibility of a positive connection between the subject and its predicate. We do not say, "This wall does not see". Why? Because wall has no possible connection with seeing. Now, AllÄh can have no possible connection at all with injustice or oppression. Therefore, the sentence, "they did not do Us any harm", would seem a super�fluous and implausible assertion, because there was no need for saying that AllÄh could not be harmed nor did He harm anyone - unless it was meant to convey some fine point to the listeners. And that point is this: Great persons often speak on behalf of their servants and dependants; likewise, AllÄh in this verse is speak�ing on behalf of Muhammad and his progeny (peace be on them all), joining them to Himself in this declaration.


Edited by .InshAllah.

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