Chapter 5 aya 6- The changing of `wipe' وَامْسَحُوا to 'wash' your feet and ankles:
O believers! When you rise up for prayer, wash your faces and your hands up to the elbows, wipe your heads, and wash your feet to the ankles (5:6)
https://quran.com/5/6
Chapter 4 aya 24 - The changing of 'muta' اسْتَمْتَعْتُم to 'consummated marriage' with their due dowries: Also ˹forbidden are˺ married women—except ˹female˺ captives in your possession.1 This is Allah’s commandment to you. Lawful to you are all beyond these—as long as you seek them with your wealth in a legal marriage, not in fornication. Give those you have consummated marriage with their due dowries (4:24) https://quran.com/4/24
This is misleading to non-Arabic speakers and converts.
Quran.com is the most popular website to pop up on Google when searching for verses in the Quran, but as you can see they mistranslate to suite their agenda.
When am debating with non-Shia's it becomes very difficult as I am forced to use Shia websites, which then they accuse me of being biased and deceiving for using something that is Shia. Debating becomes a very lengthy process because I first have to explain what the real translation is, which then they have to double check and do their own research on etc etc. understandably the opponent is very dubious.
Also, these are obvious words. There is no way that wipe in Arabic should translate to wash in English.
I understand that there are (Sunni) traditions that say for example that the Prophet (عليه السلام) washed his feet, but how can a tradition/hadith have more significance that the Holy Quran? These are clear orders and words, nothing ambiguous about them. So if a tradition contradicts the Quran then it should be thrown out. Or at least it should be taken with a grain of salt. We shouldn't resort to hadiths when we have the Quran - with clear verses.
Can someone please explain, what are the reasons behind this, and what is their justifications?