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In the Name of God بسم الله
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As explained in detail by Brother Qa’im here: there seems to be many indications that Isaiah 42 refers to the Holy Prophet (صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم). However, do the Shi’a still accept that this refers to the Prophet (صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم), given that we do not support the Umayyad, Abbasid and Ottoman caliphates? Verse 4 of Isaiah states: So it may seem that the verse says that Islam will reach the Islands, and that the Earth will be filled with justice. Do correct me if I’m wrong. JazakAllahu Khayran
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