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How does ayat tatheer prove the infallibility of the imams if 'rijs' does not mean sin. Now if we look at the qur'an, no where does it indicated that rijs means sin. Also, in our books it mentions in that the imam said 'rijs' means doubt. How can we prove ayat tatheer proves infallibility if rijs does not mean sin? In surah 8:11, very similar words that are used in ayat tatheer are used for the companions. Does this mean that the companions are infallible. Specifically, the ayat uses 'Ankum' which we often bring up about ayat tatheer to say that they were always purified. Using this logic, does that mean the sahaba were also always purified? Final question is why does the event of kisa have to happen if the ayat was already revealed for the five?
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