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Aoa, I saw an interesting comment on an Instagram post today. The post is about Raffia Arshad, the first female judge in the UK who also wears a head scarf/covering/ hijab. The comment was: "Isn't ruling by something other than the law of Allah haram and constitutes kufr?" I dont want to get into the nitty grittys of the question, so lets take an example of something very common in the UK and publicly accepted: Zina. In the UK, the judge cannot punish any 2 people for committing Zina, however it is punishable in Islamic Law. Also, I am well aware that Muslim countries don't follow Sharia down to the dot. There are loopholes, and many of the laws are not publicly followed as well, such as in Pakistan, Malaysia, and others we dont have a law about hijab/head covering of any kind. However, Iran and Saudi Arabia does. But, then Iran and Saudi Arabia has loopholes and shisha lounges are very common there, mixed gatherings are allowed, etc. Not stating my opinion on it, not saying I'm pious and free of all sins, just saying these are things The Prophet SAW and therefore Allah (سُبْحَانَهُ وَ تَعَالَى) would never approve of. Henceforth, being a judge here is also the same as the West since it doesnt follow Sharia down the dot. But then, the world wouldn't work like that. I understand that atleast officially Iran and Saudi are following Sharia and it might be better than there, but since theres always loopholes, and the powerful/bribery gets away with it even in these countries, then is it okay to do the same in the UK? One last thing, I also know Prophet SAW during his time didn't put non Muslims under sharia Law, they were judged by their religious leaders and punished by their law (atleast what ive read) so if this is true, then Im asking about Muslims committing such sins and their families bringing them to court, if for example they came to her and she still can't pass the judgement by Sharia Law, then what? Is there no expense on her part on the Day of Judgement or is there? I thought of it like this too, if i work in the grocery store, and sell pork/wine, etc. to non muslims and muslims, will i be held accountable? this is how i relate it to my own life and why I want to know the answers. Just a few thoughts. All advice and guidance is welcomed!
Alsalamu alaykum Allah (swt) has created the universe in accordance with natural disposition (fitrah). Due to have inappropriate influence for human being and lead him to be astonished and perplexed, every action which is against of natural disposition (fitrah) is forbidden in Islam. Homosexuality, as one of acts which is against of natural disposition (fitrah), is prohibited in Islam. Homosexuality in men is called ‘Lavwāt’ and in women is called ‘Musāhaqah’. To know more about sharia laws concerning to these two immoral acts, some problems shall be expressed; 1- Sodomy (Lavwāt) is the sexual intercourse between two males by penetration etc. of the male organ. It is not established except by the confession made four times by the person committing sodomy or the person with whom it has been committed, or the evidence of four men, of ocular demonstration. If a man commits sodomy resulting in penetration, the punishment by death shall be established in his case as well as the person with whom sodomy is committed, when each of them is an adult, sane and having free will. As for the features of the doer person or the person with whom sodomy is committed, sharia laws in this regard are different. Being every one of them as a married person, minor boy, lunatic, dhimmi infidel and so on can be expressed as some of these features. The laws also are different in accordance with happening of penetration or not. Hadd, in some of them shall be established and Taʼzīr in some other one. 2- Lesbianism (Musāhaqah) means sexual act of a woman with another woman of her own sex. It is established with what establishes Lavwāt or sodomy. Its Hadd is one hundred lashes [to each of the women] provided they are adult, sane and have free will, no matter whether they are married or not. There is no difference between the active and passive, or an infidel and a Muslim. As for it, Islam recognizes the sexual needs of human beings and believes that the natural instincts should be nurtured, not suppressed. Islam says that the biological parts of our body have a purpose; they have not been created uselessly. No text in Islam can be found to equate sex with inherent evil or sin; whatever has been taught by the Qur'an, Prophet Muhammad and his Ahlu'l-bayt points in the opposite direction. In this regard, Islam has blamed celibacy and highly recommended marriage as a good deed to resolve these immoral acts. Allah says, "Marry the spouseless among you...if they are poor, God will enrich them of His bounty."  The Prophet and the Imams of Ahlu'l Bayt also encouraged their followers to marry and to fulfill their sexual urges in lawful ways. The Prophet said, 'Whosoever likes to follow my tradition, then he should know that marriage is from my tradition.  Imam Riza said, "Three things are from the traditions of the messengers of God: using perfume, removing the [excessive] hair and frequently visiting one's wife.  Read more in; http://islamportal.net/book/marriage-and-morals-islam ----------------------------------------------- 1. Mousavi Khumeini, sayyed rouhollah, Tahrir Al-wasilah, vol. 2, p. 489 2. The Qur'an 24:32 3. Al-Hurr al-Aamili, Wasā'il al-Shīʿa, vol. 14, p. 3-4, 6. 4. Al-Hurr al-Aamili, Wasā'il al-Shīʿa, Vol. 14, p. 4.
Prophet Mohammad & Islamic Sharia`h By Imam Sayed Mustafa Alqazwini At California State University,Chico This letcture aims to distinguish between misconceptions and the true essence of Islam through the example of Prophet Mohammad (pbuh). .:BEYOND|Events:report and interviwes: http://bit.ly/14B7rBs Please follow us to see the most resent update of our events and activities
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