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As salaam alaikum, I am a follower of Ayatollah Sistani and I am confused about this rule. 354. It is Mustahab that a person should urinate after the seminal discharge. If he did not urinate and an emission was seen after Ghusl, which could not been determined as semen or something else, it would be treated as semen. After urinating properly and removing semen left in the penis, I performed ghusl e janabat. A little while after ghusl, I went to the toilet to urinate again and noticed small particles in my urine. Is this assumed to be semen? Do I have to perform my ghusl once more? Thank you
Hey guys, I know this topic is hot and a bit sensitive but I am currently plunging into utter confusion. I would like to comprehend what these verses are in fact saying. It seems, in light of the tafsirs and classical dictionaries, that the verses here are referring to the semen which proceeds from between the backbones and an area being either between the two breasts, between the breasts and the collarbones, or the chest. Now these are the dictionaries, mostly classical, I have used to deduce the meaning of the words in the verse: Lisan Al Arab by Ibn Mandhoor, Kitab Al-'Ayn by Al-Faraheedi, Al-Kanz Al-Lughawy Fi Al Lusun Al-Arabi, Al-Qamuus Al Muheet, and Lane's Lexicon which is the only one, amongst those whom I mentioned, who put loins as a definition for sulb. Now the tafsirs that are in favor of this conclusion comprise almost all of them. These are the exegeses that I have referred to: Shaykh Al Tusi's Al Tibbyan Fi Tafsir Al Quran, Tafsir Al Saafi by Al-Kaashaani, Majma' Al Bayaan and Jaami' Al Jawaami' by Al Shaykh Al Tabrasi, Tafsir Nur Al Thaqalayn by Al-Shaykh 'Abd 'Ali Bin Jum'a Al-Huwaizri, Bihaar Al Anwar Fi Tafsir Al Maathoor Fil Quran by Al Majlisi, and no I did not forget Tafsir Al Mizaan by Al Alaamah Al Tabatabaei. The only one tafsir that I am separating is Al Amthal Fi Tafsir Kitab Allah Al Munazzal by Al-Shaykh Naasir Makarim Al Shiraazi especially because it is a bit different from others. It collects the most famous interpretations of the verse in explaining the ayaat. However, in my humble opinion, the interpretations were not quite convincing in there. Excluding the last tafsir, it seems that there is a consensus on the general definition of the words in these ayaat. Anyhow,I guess the point has reached. I hope somebody can help me out in this issue. You will probably get most of what I have mentioned here from books to dictionaries: http://www.hodaalquran.com/bookscat.php?sec=2&mn=1 http://www.baheth.info Thank you and waiting for your replies.
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