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wagwan aight basically, i read about istihalah and im bare confuddled innit. Like what even on earth is happening. SO AS WE KNOW ISTIHALAH MAKES ANY NON HALAL CONSUMPTION PRODUCT, SUCH AS GELATIN, WINE, ETC HALAL 100% SINCE IT IS NOT CONSIDRED THE ORIGINAL PRODUCT ANYMORE VIA CHEMICAL CHANGE OR PRODUCTION. IM NOT CONFUSED ABOUT THIS I ALREADY KNOW THIS BIT READ BELOW PLS: iM CONFUSED ABOUT HOW AM I MEANT TO DETERMINE IF something has gone thru istihalah, for example a gelatin is used in marshmellows, but that gelatin is heated, boiled, baked and blah blah, and a marshmellow clearly looks nothing like gelatin (nor tastes looks or feels like it ) many i have heard sheikhs say that any product saying "gelatin" on the back is halal bcuz its gone thru istihalah I DONT DOUBT THEM NOT SAYING I DO BTW !! SO DONT COME @. ME. WHAT IM SAYING IS... HOW DO I KNOW THAT THING HAS GONE THRU ISTIHALAH IS IT COMMEN SENSE OR MORE INTRICATE MY OPNION CURRENTLY IS THIS ALL products labelled to have gelatin in them are perbissible to eat due to the process of chemical change it undergoes THIS IS ALSO THE OPINION OF LATE AYATOLLAH KHUI (رضي الله عنه) alaamun alaykum, The following question on gelatine and beef fat was kindly answered by Moulana Rizvi. He has provided an extensive discussion on the question of gelatine, and Agha Khui's fatwa on this matter. Wasalaam, Mustafa Rawji Moderator, ABDG-A ___________________________________________________________________ INITIAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: Question 1: What is the ruling on Gelatin? Can gelatin derived from cows and pigs be used? Answer RE: Gelatin On the queston of gelatine, I am quoting what I have written in January 1989 in the Shama newsletter produced in Vancouver, BC. I have just added few comments to further clarify the issue. A. What is Gelatine? Gelatine is an animal protein substance having gel-forming properties, and is used primarily in food products. It is derived from collagen, a protein found in animal skin and bone. This means that gelatine can be derived from animal skin or animal bone. B. The Basic Rule of the Shari`ah: The shari`ah rule about animal skin differs from that of animal bone: SKIN: Animal skin or anything made from it can be considered tahir (pak) only if the animal had been slaughtered Islamically. Consequently, the gelatine derived from animal skin would be considered najis unless we know that the animal had been slaughtered Islamically. [Those present-day mujtahids who consider the animal slaughtered unIslamically as tahir but haram -- their opinion does not affect this answer that much because in their opinion, even if that animal skin is tahir, it is still haram for consumption by human beings.] BONE: Animal bone is considered tahir even if the animal had not been slaughtered Islamically. Bones have been exempted from the rule of maytah [i.e., an animal slaughtered unIslamically or died by itself]. However, this does not include the bones of pigs and dogs. (See Minhaju 's-Salihiyn [vol. 1, p. 109 and vol. 2, p. 336] of the late Sayyid al-Khu`i and al-`Urwatu 'l-Wuthqa, p. 20-21) Consequently, the gelatine derived from animal bones (other than pigs and dogs) is tahir even if the animal was not slaughtered Islamically. C. The Practical Problem: Having stated the above, we are faced with a practical problem: The labels on food products do not specify whether the gelatine was derived from animal skin or animal bones. So what should we do? Can we assume that it has been derived from animal bones and consider it tahir or not? When I sent this question to the late Ayatullah al-Khu`i in December 1989, he replied: "Yes, it can be considered tahir." This answer is based on the shari`ah principle that if an item can originate from two sources: one pak and other najis -- in cases of ambiguity, you can assume that it is pak. D. Accepted that it is tahir; but is it also halal? There are some people who would not be satisfied with the answer of Ayatullah al-Khu`i and pose the following question: "Accepted that it is tahir (pak); but is it halal for consumption as food item?" In my question to Ayatullah al-Khu`i, I gave the example of cheese and sweets with gelatine. It is quite obvious that I was asking the late marja` about eating those items, and not just touching and feeling them!!! However, to satisfy those who would like to see the words "halal and religously eatable," I will quote a detailed answer of the Ayatullah al-Khu`i to three questions sent to him from London. Q. Is gelatine derived from dog or pig tahir? Is gelatine derived from halal animals (like cows, goats, etc) but not slaughtered according to shari`a tahir? Is gelatine derived from non-halal animals other than dog or pig, tahir? A. "If a najis or haram matter from any category whatsoever changes into another than its original category, then it is considered tahir as long as it did not come into contact with another source of najasat. And the rule for gelatine in all the three cases is same as what we have mentioned above. "But in case the gelatine does not change, then: "If it is derived from parts of dogs and pigs or an animal which feeds on human excrement and has not been quarantined, then it is haram and najis. "Similarly, [it is haram and najis] if it is derived from those parts of the maytah which are other than its bones. "But if the gelatine is derived from the bones of other than dogs and pigs, and has not become najis because of a secondary najasat, then it is permissible to eat it and eat whatever has been mixed and submerged into it." The last paragraph of Ayatullah al-Khu`i's answer fully supports what I had written in Shama in Janaury 1989. E. Issue of Istihalah in Gelatine: In the first part of Ayatullah Khu'i's answer, he says: "If a najis or haram matter from ANY CATEGORY whatsoever changes into another than its original category, then it is considered tahir as long as it did not come into contact with another source of najasat." This is based on the rule of istihalah -- chemical change which makes a najis item tahir (mutahhirat). To know if such a change occures in the final product known as gelatine, we have to refer to the experts of food industry. After my article was published, a brother from Minnesota, USA, was kind enough to send for me a copy of an hand-out distributed by General Foods (the manufacturer of Jell-o, the gelatin dessert). A paragraph in that hand-out, in my opinion, clearly gives the expert's view about the chemical change (istihalah) which takes place in manufacturing of gelatine. While reading the below quotation, keep in mind that these people do not have the slightest clue about the issue of istihalah in our shari`ah! It says: "It is interesting to note that during manufacture of gelatin, chemical changes take place so that, in the final gelatin product, the composition and identity of the original material is completely eliminated. Because of this, gelatin is not considered a meat food product by the United States government. The plant is under supervision of the Federal Food and Drug Admininstration. If the government considered gelatin a meat food product, the plant would operate under the Meat Inspection Branch of the Department of Agriculture." (From General Foods Corp. New York.) If this is not istihalah, then what is it? In final conclusion, all types of gelatine is tahir and halal. For those interesting in reading my 1989 article on 'RENNET, PEPSIN & GELATINE' may contact my office at: Islamic Education & Information Centre, 135 Sheppard Avenue East, North York, Ontario, Canada M2N 3A6 Tel: (416) 223-2162 Fax: (416) 223-2528 Question 2: A change in the state of a najis substance is deemed to make it halal. Can you elaborate on this? What level of change is required? Is beef fat or other animal fat used in cookies/dougnuts/cakes/fries deemed to have been transformed so as to make it halal? Answer: You are talking about istihalah which we have mentioned above in answer to question no. 1. Istihalah means change or more precisely, a chemical change which places the item under a list which is different from its original grouping. The examples you have mentioned do not qualify for istihalah; and are, therefore, still najis and haram. On details on the issue to taharat and najasat, see my "RITUAL & SPIRITUAL PURITY" available from IEIC whose address and tel. # have been given under answer no. 1. Yours in Islam, Sayyid M. Rizvi ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- FOLLOW-UP QUESTION: Just for clarification, you stated in the last posting regarding gelatine that "all types of gelatine is tahir and halal." Does this mean that when we see gelatine in a list of ingredients where nothing else is questionable, ethn we are to assume that the gelatine comes from an animal other than a pig or a dog i.e. an animal that is tahir but has not been slaughtered according to Shari`ah. Please answer this question as per Ayatullah Khui and Seestani. ANSWER: As mentioned under "C" in the original answer, you can assume that it is tahir and halal. And if you read the last part about istihala "E", then all kinds of gelatine becomes tahir and halal. Yours in Islam, Sayyid Muhammad Rizvi

Salam Alaykum I have a question related to when a Muslim becomes najis by rejecting certain Islamic principles. So according to Ayatollah Sistani: Ruling 103. A person who does not believe in Allah or His oneness is impure. Similarly, the following are impure: extremists (ghulāt) (i.e. those who regard one of the Infallible Imams (ʿA) as Allah, or say that Allah has immanence (ḥulūl) in the Imam (ʿA)),[1] Kharijites (khawārij), and nawāṣib (i.e. those who display enmity towards the Infallible Imams (ʿA)). The same applies to a person who rejects prophethood or any one of the indispensable aspects of the religion – such as prayers (ṣalāh) and fasting (ṣawm) – if it is in a way that it amounts to refuting Prophet Muḥammad (Ṣ), albeit in a general manner. As for the People of the Book (ahl al‑kitāb) (i.e. Jews, Christians, and Zoroastrians), they are ruled to be pure.[Click and drag to move] The problem I am facing is that a close person to me has made some problematic statements concerning Islam. He says that some things arent wajib, like Salah, Hajj and Hijab. He also claims that some of the commandments and matters of fiqh in our Religion were in reality fabricated and not actually founded by the holy prophet. For example, if I remember correctly, he said that the "Iranian Akhund/Sheikhs" made Hijab wajib to oppress women or something similar lol. The thing is though, that he rejects these things because apparently he believes that people invented them and that the Prophet never preached them, or that some of the commandments were only meant for that time. For example, he thinks people had to fast back then as most Muslims lived in Arabia, but as Muslims started to spread around the globe, its not wajib anymore for those Muslims who for instance live in countries where the timezone makes fasting harder. But then again, once he said in a gathering that the Taliban practised the "real Islam". This is one of the reasons why I am confused. Something separate he once also said was something along the lines of that the holy Prophet and Imam Ali ((عليه السلام)) killed a lot of people and fought a lot of wars (and he said it in a rather negative tone ĺike some critics of Islam talk and call the prophet a warlords) I'm not sure if this counts as nasb (enmity towards the Imams). I think he got this influence from some youtuber he has been watching. Despite this, he still says he is a Muslim and that Prophet Muhammad is our Prophet and such, and apparently accepts the 12 Imams (although this may sound contradictory). Is he ruled to be najis because of these statements?

Salam, I have couple of questions I can seem to dind the answer to: While on the menstrual cycle (haidh) does everything i touch with wet hands became najis? When in the state of jannaba if I wash my hand, if I touch things with these wet hands do they become najis? How so I clean my hands after touching an iteams that ia najis and wet?

I had done my namazes but afterwards, I learnt I hadn't washed myself enough when I had used the toilet. I had doubts but I wasn't too sure until after the namazes. Are they still valid or must I redo them?

Al salam alycom, I live in a western country, in which there are many products that is made of real leather, and many of the products states that is "made in Italy" or "made in France" for instance. However most of the leather that is used in for instance car seats and bags have been gone through machines and have been "treated" by for instance colors and other products. As the leather is treated it will be coated and treated. In this case, due to the procedures that the leather has undergone such as coloring and other chemical procedures will this not prevent the leather from getting wet, as it is only the surface that is getting wet and thus for instance rain/water and sweat will not reach the leather itself? And for instance will this not make the leather as istihala? (As There are also many leather products that does not smell nor looks like leather because of the color used). I hope my question was clear. Wa salam.

I had an injection earlier on in the day and I bled afterwards with a tissue. I forgot to clean with water though and ive already done my namazes. Is wiping blood off with a tissue sufficient or will I have to do the whole namaz again?

There is a Indian restaurant here which serves halal food. Most of the workers are Hindu but we aren't sure if the wear gloves or not. Are we allowed to eat there?

When does the najasat stops transmitting? Is it necessary for the second mutannajis to be dry before it makes an another object 3rd mutannajis? Thanks. May Allah bless you

Salam, I’m an 18 years old male. Suffering alot because of tahirat issues. I cant concentrate on my studies and as well as cant pray..: In the past, I didn’t pay attention to the taharat. I used to wash my hand once after toilet under the tap. First I washed my hands, then applied soap and then again washed it. So my question is will this be counted as 2 washes or 1 washes? Was my hand pak? Because according to Sistani, it is mandatory to wash twice in order to make your hands pak. Another question is that if i washed my najis hand (because of Urine) once under the tap properly and throughly, without washing it twice, will it be considered pak? And if not then will the najasat transfer to other places i touched them with wet hands. Please help. May Allah bless you

SA, I had surgery recently and my doctor said I cannot put water on my head because I have stitches. I recently have become in a state of Janabat. How can I do ghusl if my head cannot become wet? I follow Sistani and I’m a man.

I am living in india..I hav joined hostel run by non muslims..I have many doubts and face many problems as i hav never living among non muslim community before..1)They change the bed sheet daily and clean the room..should i allow it..?? 2) can i use the common washing machine or will my clothes will become najis as hindus also use the same 3) can i give my clothes to laundry ?? 4) can i give my clothes for dry wash 5 ) i recently gave some clothes to laundry and then when they gave me back i kept them under tap water to make them taahir..Can i do the same as i dont want to wash my clothes ?? 6 ) after giving my clothes to laundry and for dry wash if i put them under sun will they become taahir ?? 7) sun makes all things pure so if i allow non muslims to wash bed sheet and cook food and then keep under sun.is it ok ?? Will sunlight make food snd sheet pure ??

Okay so I think I seriously have OCD, not to the level where I want to kill myself to end the misery but its bad enough to take most of my mental space. First the basics, every time I sit to pee, I feel like its splashing on my under thigh, the area thats exposed underneath while sitting. and since I feel splashes, I end up doing a lot of washing every time I pee, the front the back the everything. And even though its distressing At least I feel clean at the end of it. Currently I live in Pakistan so we have ample of water in the toilets and proper drainage to avoid flooding in the toilets. But I will be going to the UK for studies and these privileges wont be enjoyed there... and since I was wondering I need to find a way to be able to use the public toilets there without causing a flood, I had an idea this morning. I was just trying it out... so I decided I'll pee while standing, I threw some tissue paper in the seat and I kinda aimed at it so it absorbs the urine, and then I'll flush it out no splashes, minimal washing(as I said I think I have OCD). So when I was at it, it kinda felt like i had splashes of my left leg, now I wasn't sure if there were actual splashes or my mind playing games on me because I was watching very closely as the pee went in the pot and I didn't see any splashes, so I ran my hand on my leg to feel for wetness, I didn't feel anything and I kind smelt my hand later, no odour either. At that time I didn't want to leave the place unclean so I practically showered and washed the floor and all. Now for the sensible side in me; first of all I have a theory, I think my mind just plays games on me and there aren't any splashes, either while sitting OR when i was standing, cause I have tried sitting and not peeing and I still feel some thing on my lower thigh (At this point I realise I sound totally looney) my theory is that since I take my pants off the hair on my legs kinda adjust to being not in pants and thats what feels like splashes... but I don't know how to be sure. And I know the rules regarding doubts are, that when you are not sure that something's gotten najis, ignore the doubt. How am I supposed to do this when the outcome of not washing everything are seemingly disastrous. Please, please, please help.

I usually use hair gel. It contains alcohol. I have talked with an aalim in my local mosque, and if I understood correctly, it's not Najis and you can pray with it. My question is simply; Even if it's not Najis, is it haram if you accidentally get it in your mouth and you swallow it? When I wash the gel of with water, I start doubting if some of the gel has ended up in my mouth with the water. If it's not najis, is it also that it's not haram due to change of its form? Thankful for some guidance.

Salam, Quick question: Does a cat's saliva void prayers? I've read, you can use water from a bowl, which a cat has drunk from to do wudhu. I've also read that a cat's saliva voids the prayers. How can these two be reconciled? Thank you!

Salam's brothers and sisters, I own a cat pet which lives indoors and often goes outside, however she does have a litter box and she manages to litter in that when she can. I feed her canned and dry food, now the food i that i give her is the usual canned food you buy from the department stores they are not halal certified. They usually come in beef, chicken or fish. The dry food comes in also different flavors and types that are available to the general public. My question is that if i feed my lunch then say after 5 mins now, as you no the nature of the cat is to usually lick her self or self cleaning as they say many times during the day, she would lick lick lick, so my question is if i touch her hair for example with my wet hands, are my hands now najis and whatever it touches, or if my cat licks her legs and then goes outside after it has rained making her feet also wet would it be in the state of najasat? i would like if someone could answer it.

As salamu aleikoum, I have a really big, I would say unbearable problem. I was born in a muslim family. However, for a little less than three years, I had doubts about Islam. I can confidently say that I wasn't a muslim during that time. Then, al hamdoulilah, I reverted to Islam. I practiced Islam better than ever for a long time. For a few months however, I realised that I had a serious problem. Since I do taqlid of Ayatollah Sistani, kuffar are considered najis. Therefore, everything I touched with wetness in my house during those two-three years was rendered najis. If I was the only one living there, it wouldn't be hard to clean the whole house. However, we are 6. Therefore, even if I wash myself then clean the whole house, it would be najis again very quickly since other members of my family have touched the same objects that I did when I wasn't a muslim. It means that they themselves became najis and will render najis anything they touch with wetness... The only solution would be for everyone to clean themselves completly and then wash the whole house ! Please, what should I do ? Does anyone have an idea ? My prayers and everything will be void because of that.

As salamu aleikoum, I know it seem funny to ask a question about something as "silly" as washing urine but I really wonder if urine has to be washed once or twice when using kurr water. That is because of two reasons : 1) I believe that there are contradictions in Ay. Sistani's website about this matter (see the references below). At the very least, I believe it is not very clear ; 2) Most of people don't even wash urine twice after urinating (they just wash it once and use their hand) or after being splashed with urine (they put the najis part under the tap once). Therefore, would it mean that they are all najis ? Here is why I think that there are contradictions in Ay. Sistani's rulings. First, let's look at these 5 rulings : ------------------------------------------ http://www.sistani.org/english/book/46/2029/ http://www.sistani.org/english/book/46/2030/ http://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2120/ http://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2140/ http://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2140/ --------------------------------------------------------- We can clearly see that it is stated that if the body or the dress is najis with urine, it must be washed twice, be it with kurr, under-kurr water or rain water (it seems that things have a different ruling). This is an obligatory precaution. Therefore, the follower is allowed to act on the fatwa of another mutjahid (http://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2116/) ---> Does anyone know a mutjahid who says that it is enough to wash urine once in kurr water ? Now, let's see where the "contradiction" is, according to me : http://www.sistani.org/english/book/48/2123/ (this ruling is in the chapter "taharat - rules concerning use of lavatory", if knowing the context can help anyone understanding it). So, in the ruling above, it is stated, if I am not mistaken, that washing urine once with kurr water is enough ! It doesn't even say that it must be washed twice as a precaution. It only says that about washing urine with under-kurr water. Can someone please clarify that ? And does anyone knows a mutjahid who says that washing urine once with kurr water is enough ? Otherwise I think we all know muslims who do not wash urine twice, not because they are lazy or careless but because they think that is the way urine should be washed. Thank you very much.

As salam aleykum, I don't believe te Prophet (saws) commanded the killing of the dog. There is another famous tradition about that, I paste you below,it's is discused by Allama Tabatabai in AL-Mizan (volume 10 of English translation: Also, he says, "al-Fãriyãbī, Ibn Jarīr, Ibnu 'l-Mundhir, Ibn Abī Hãtim, at-Tabarãnī and al-Hãkim (who has said that the tradition is correct) and al-Bayhaqī have narrated from Abū Rãfi‘ that he said, 'Jibrīl came to the Prophet (s.a.w.a.), and asked permission to enter. The Prophet gave him permission but he tarried (in entering). The Prophet took his cloak, came out, and said, "We have already given you permission." (Jibrīl) said, "Yes, but we do not enter a house wherein there is a dog or a picture." They looked around and lo! There was a puppy in one of their houses.' "Abū Rãfi‘ said, 'Then he (the Prophet) ordered me to kill every dog in Medina, and this I did. People came and said, "O Messenger of Allãh! What is allowed to us from this group, which you have ordered to be killed?" The Prophet (s.a.w.a.) was silent. Then Allãh revealed: They ask you as to what is made lawful for them. Say: "The good things are made lawful for you and what you have taught the beasts of prey, training them to hunt . . ." Then the Messenger of Allãh (s.a. w.a.) said, "When a man releases his dog and recites the name of Allãh and it holds the prey for him then he should eat what the dog has not eaten." ' " (ibid.) The author says: What the tradition describes about the coming down of Jibrīl is very strange. Moreover, it does not stand on sound footing because it shows that Jibrīl did not come to the Prophet because there was a puppy in one of their houses. But the story does not tally with the apparent meaning of the verse where both the ques- tion and its reply are unrestricted. More probably, the tradition is a forged one.

Is the water in a western toilet bowl (after you flushed it) tahir? I'm asking because I occasionally use it to clean my backside when other water is not available. Fairly certain it should follow the rules of Kurr water, but I thought I'd see what others had to say.

Are fancyrats haram to have as apet ? because I want one so bad! My older brother told me they are , but i want a second opinion!! thanks heaps !

Assalamualaykum I have a problem of over thinking alot. Some of my family is Christian and they come over sometimes and obviouslt use rhe toileta and all. When i travel i stay with them so i was wondering about the ruling of whether all christians are kaafir and if i use the same shower and hand towels i am najis because they used them when wet. Would this apply even if they washed their hands and then used the towels? Jazakallah

Salam, I have a question regarding inks. Are inks considered najis? For example, the printer inks are toxic. Are those najis? Can i use Quranic chapters which i've printed with those inks? Or should i not? Help is much appreciated.

-- Please brothers do not read further this is definitely for WOMEN ONLY-- Consider yourselves thoroughly warned!! Okay, now sisters, I have a quick question regarding ghusl and this is a mature topic, I am well aware, and the mods can do what they wish to make sure only appropriate answers are given. My marja is Makarem Shirazi (see the pic), and I had a question regarding ghusl and interactions between the husband and wife. Given Shirazi's website update, and now its rather difficult ability to traverse, I have asked a mature question. I will keep this as appropriate as humanly possible for the sake of not disclosing personal information between the spouses. My question: If a woman provides a form of intimacy to her husband which leads to, you know, and she does not come in contact with the najis except for the hands, does she still need to do ghusl? Is it mandatory or recommended? This is a matter of foreplay (eek the word), and not sexual intercourse. I hope this question is not to private and salacious. I would appreciate any answers from any marja, and if possible Makarem would obviously be preferable. Sistani also works as well. Thank you!

Salam. I am currently at university and tend to stay there for around 10 hours each day. This obviously means I am required to use the toilet frequently. However, due to the large usage of these toilets, it is not always hygienic to sit down and urinate. Anyone have any advice as to possible solutions? The prayer hall is far away and walking there every single time I need to use the toilet is very very time consuming. Is it haram to urinate whilst standing?

Simple and straight question, is it haram to borrow a smoke for a few puffs from someone who drinks (but the smoke is being borrowed at a time when he is not in that state OR we don't know, for instance) ? Also, what are the precautions one must take if the mistake has been done? Please help me people, I am in a very bad dilemma. I know it is haram to smoke overall and I am trying to quit, this is why I stopped buying it and I am slowly moving forwards to quitting it. P.S. : To limit myself, I only borrow a cigarette which I know would end in 3 or 4 drags.