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In the Name of God بسم الله
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Asalam aleykum dear brothers and sisters. I have an Islamic question that fits my personal situation. I want to have more information about how to handle my situation. It's as follows: I live in the Netherlands and my wife lives in Pakistan. We've been married for over a year now. In the Netherlands I study and in 2 years I will be finishing my study. Then I can work and get my wife to the Netherlands ( due to my stable income) Each year I visit my wife in the summer during holidays. Then we will also sleep together. But the problem is that her parents don't allow me and her to have intercourse with each other. We are allowed to sleep together but we aren't allowed to have intercourse. I don't know what to do. Because in Islamic point of view having intercourse is legal. It's even illegal to deny sexual feelings for each other while being married. On the other hand having intercourse will be against the will of her parents. Also I will break their trust. I hope you can help me out with this question. Greetings, Jawad
This brother on Reddit needs help... Let's focus on the etiquette [adab] of Mutah as described by Rasulullah (S) and his Ahlul Bayt (A). Let's NOT focus on the rulings [ahkam] (we have thousands of threads on this already, we all know the rules by know, and it's not hard to figure out the rules anyway, all you have to do is check your Marja's risalah)
As salaam alaikum, I am a follower of Ayatollah Sistani and I am confused about this rule. 354. It is Mustahab that a person should urinate after the seminal discharge. If he did not urinate and an emission was seen after Ghusl, which could not been determined as semen or something else, it would be treated as semen. After urinating properly and removing semen left in the penis, I performed ghusl e janabat. A little while after ghusl, I went to the toilet to urinate again and noticed small particles in my urine. Is this assumed to be semen? Do I have to perform my ghusl once more? Thank you
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