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In the Name of God بسم الله
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Salams to all, I guess this is a question im hoping Christians on the forum will be able to help me with, but anyones help would be welcome. In the statement of the Council of Chalcedon it says that Jesus(as) was/is: 'perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body... begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead,' My question is: isnt that which distinguishes Jesus as a person of the Trinity (his being uncreated) the very thing that disqualifies him from being fully human? The word 'man' points to a certain kind of being does it not? In the Abrahamic religions 'man' is a created being by definition (as established in genesis) and so is his soul (Jeremiah 38:16), so in what way can the use of the word 'man' be said to be appropriate if the established criteria for what that word points towards is not being met?
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