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For example I had gotten wet blood onto my hand from touching my pimple, it's approximately the size of a finger tip. Therefore you could pray with it even though there is impurity on you because it's the size of a finger tip. However if the blood dried without me purifying it and my hands were sweaty and I touched my phone would it then transfer the impurity to my phone? and since I touched my phone this means the impurity will become larger than a finger tip as it spread all over it, so if I touched my phone again does this mean now I can't pray unless I purify my hand since when I touched my phone the impurity have become larger than the size of a finger tip.

Salaam I have a query, I read the Lord's prayer recently. and I fail to see HOW this is haram?????? "Our Father, Who art in heaven, hallowed be Thy name; Thy kingdom come; Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread; and forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those who trespass against us; and lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil." What is haram about this ??? Its asking Allah to give us rizq, forgive us and save us from evil? how is it haram?? @A

Okay, so here we go evryone on here finna hate me after this bcuz ik what the sc community is like but im gnna say this anyway IN the west, we have interest. In all (almost) every. single. transaction. now, many people FAIL to understand. that in the west living without interest is PRACTICALLY IMPOSSIBLE UNLESS you wish to live as a FAQIR or sumthin and idk about u but i sure as Hell DONT if something is necessary for us to function in society then whats the issue. Like be fr. I AM AWARE that riba is usury and haram and terrible I KNOW! HOWEVER, living in the west IT IS NECESSARY AND UNAVOIDABLE and as we know in islam if something exists which we legit cannot function without due to the fact that the entire society and nation is built upon it in an unavoidable fashion. such thing is permissible, this is obvious cuz allah doesnt want us going to live as malangs (ascetics) in the streets or countryside LOL. I just simply cant fathom how some people will still say "loans are haram" or "mortgage is haram" or "working in banking deals "or"credit card with interest are haram"etc like mate use ur brain??? Just cuz YOU are for some reason okay with living so "humbly" as to not engage in ANY such thing an not move out ur moms basement or live in a 1 bed rent or a homless shelter doesnt mean everyone else has to bruv. OR just cuz u LIVE in a muslim nation DOESNT MEAN we all do live in nations without interest in every part of life. cuz buddy we LIVE IN A SOCIETY WHERE IT IS BRUV BEFORE someone says "oh u can take loans or pay interest on banking deals at work or pay interest on credit cards IF YOU DO IT with the INTENTION of not paying it back and as a transaction without return even if u do pay it back" this is frankly NONSENSE im sorry! BE HONEST BE FOR REAL MATE purposely changing ur NIYYAH to pretend ur not gonna pay it back then the banks like pay it back and ur like "oh wow i had totally not intended to but now im being forced oh no aaaaa guess i gotta pay the interest" meanwhile u knew DAMN WELL that u were gonna pay it back makes ZERO ZERO SENSE!! THINK ABOUT IT this is the equivalent of me picking up alcohol and pretendining i dont know its alcoholic drink it and say oh I DIDNT KNOW liike be fr it doesnt make any sense its simple in the west, WE HAVE TO PAY AND RECIEVE interest!!! YOU KNOW IT AND SO DO I! so stop avoiding the blatant truth buddy. i personally for any living in the west living BELIEVE TAKING A LOAN ISNT HARAM YOU NEED THEM (UNLESS ITS FOR SOMETHING DUMB LIKE IDK A LOAN FOR A SHIRT OR SMTH LOL ) CREDIT CARDS WITH INTERST ARENT HARAM because; 1) ur paying the money to the bank not one single person its an entitiy who you dont know personally at all an unknown owner malik al majhul i think is what its called 2) working in banking with interst isnt haram IN THE WEST not everywhere of course. its just a job ur gonna deal in the interest no matter what and its a way of earning money BIGGEST POINT HERE READ THE WHOLE THING DONT RAGE it is completley NORMAL and fully ACCEPTED almost compulsory to deal with interst in the WEST therefore due to its complete necessitty its not HARAM obviously living in a muslim nation for example is a diff story. so imma become a banker without ppl telling me im a kaffir for it and imma take a loan OR GET AN AMEX card to BUILD A GOOD CREDIT SCORE AND PAY FOR THINGS I CANT INSTANTLY AFFORD and build a credit score for a rainy day or to buy a nice house or car one day. If i need to take a loan for car house education investment or invest in bonds options forex etfs futures stocks crypto etc i see no problem in this. FURTHERMORE MANY MANY SCHOLARS AGREE THAT THE INTEREST WE HAVE TODAY IN THE WEST IS NOT THE RIBA / USURY THAT IS REFEREED TO IN THE QURAN / HADITH!!!! HOWEVER, if I ever move to a muslim nation insha'allah then yes its a different story WARNING: IM TALKING ABOUT IN REGARDS TO GIVING AND RECIEVING INTERST IN NON MUSLIM NATIONS WHERE IT IS NORMAL AND NOT SEEN AS USURY IM NOT SAYING ITS UNIVERSALLY OKAY I WOULD NEVER SAY SUCH THINGS! AND IM TALKING ABOUT DEALING WITH A NON MUSLIM BANK. SO LIL DISCLAIMER

Salam alaikum! I am planning to visit Karbala during this Ramadan but will be there for less than 10 days. So, do my fasts become qasr or can I fast like my own hometown? Your answer based on the Shia Fiqh would be highly appreciated. Jazakallah Khair.

I believe one of the main exceptions of gheebah is when you have been wronged by someone else or oppressed. I used to be under the impression that if you are wronged or oppressed you are able to mention it to anyone you wish without restriction, but perhaps not to the extent of doing it to defame someone. However, I have recently learnt that our maraja limit this exception (ehtiyat e wajib) of gheebah to those who are able to help (I believe). Moreover, the kinds of people who are able to help are specified and limited. I believe these are limited to: 1. To a judge [or a lawyer]. 2. In an employment context to an employer 3. In the context of mental well-being or distress, to a formal counsellor. Not just anyone who may informally act as a counsellor to help the oppressed person come to terms with the gheebah or look at it, or understand it, from a different perspective, eg, a wife [or friend]. I believe this is according to Sayyid Sistani and perhaps Sayyid Khamenei is a little less restrictive with regards to the formal counsellor. Does this mean, for example if a woman is being abused by her husband, she is not allowed to mention it to her father or another member of her family who may be able to help. If someone is wronged and distressed by someone else's actions does this mean they are not allowed to 'vent' to someone they trust for their mental health like a friend, spouse or elder they trust and respect for advice? Please could someone elaborate on the exceptions of gheebah generally and specifically in the case of being wronged and whether it is only if when seeking help. This could be according to any well recognised marja you are aware of. I am aware that if there is serious oppression occurring then it is almost obligatory to publicise it to try and prevent it happening, whether it was to you or others, such as in certain countries in the world today. Jazakallah

Recently Person A offered to take the dua of Person B on their Umrah. Person B hesitated due to some differing views. For example: Person A: -Emphasis on mercy, forgiveness and charity. -Questionable actions/lack of actions in job role. -Questionable integrity regarding empathy in major life changes; using sensitive information to make "joking" remarks that are hurtful. Person B: -Stubborn, good natured struggling to maintain work/life balance. -Emphasis on work ethic, sacrificing personal desires to secure a better future. -Expectations and standards for self projected onto others (too high). Of note that this takes place in the Way West. Person B makes prayers and believes that this dua is a bit more sacred due to its being recited at the sacred site, as they believe the intentions of Person B to be pure, despite all else. The dua is informally written in a poetic verse with the penultimate and final words altering in placement and order for the emphasis of meaning. The dua was enclosed in a blank sealed envelope. When Person B hands the envelope over to Person A, they state "Please do not open it or read it until you arrive at your destination." Person A laughed and began to tear the corner of the envelope and opened it. Person A read it silently right in front of Person B. Person A said nothing more to Person B nor asked questions. It is my suspicion that Person A: -did not understand dua of Person B -will show the dua of Person B to others. What can be understood by the interaction of these two individuals, when something that is universally understood to be sacred is responded to in this manner? Do you think there is a chance that Person A does not comprehend the dua? Feel free to ask any supporting questions regarding the observation of the two subjects in this scenario. Many Thanks In Adv.

Salaam all. A good friend of mine has a wife who confessed to having kissed a lesbian couple with passion which included lustful bodily contact as well as lustful gazes on each others' bodies. Of course he is devastated, but he was curious about what is the legal ruling on something like this, but didn't feel well enough to ask on a forum on his own so he asked me to look for some answers. Does this come under adultery? Yes or no? If yes, why and if no then why not? If no then what does this come under and legally what is the punishment (given the conditions are fulfilled such as for adultery which requires 4 confessions on separate occasions) Apart from that, although he didn't ask this, I wanted to ask so I can advise him: What should he do now? He is obviously depressed and frustrated with anger but also said he loved her, but feels very betrayed and broken. She confessed because she saw a bad dream reminding her of what she did so she woke up crying and later confessed to him about her actions. What should he do? Answers are welcome from both Shia brothers and sisters

I know the method of doing Istibra after relieving myself. It might sound gross but I'll describe it anyway. First after urinating, one pulls upwards thrice from the anus to the scrotum with the middle finger of the left hand. Then by placing the left forefinger on the top and the thumb below the penis, squeeze from the root to the tip. And then press the tip thrice. But here's the problem. The first part where we pull upwards thrice from anus to scrotum, it is hard for me to do somehow and as a result it has become an obsession and I end up taking more than half an hour in the washroom. Can I just skip this part and do the squeezing part??? I have OCD by the way.

Salaam to all I was approached by someone about the matter of Hijab. I will not get into specifics for keeping it short but I want to know of Maraji which have mroe lenient laws regarding hijab By more lenient I mean they do not require covering of hair... etc

Salam to all. A recent wedding in my friends circle the mahr was decided to be reading of a certain number of times The Quran and certain number of Tasbeeh of Salawat. I wanted to know if this practice is correct as per our Marjas rulings, because we have read/ heard about Mahr being monetary in nature.

Salam to all. "Apologies for reposting this topic from Jurisprudence section, but I wasn't getting any response there and really was looking forward to some replies on this topic. If repostings aren't allowed here I do not mind this topic being deleted." A recent wedding in my friends circle the mahr was decided to be reading of a certain number of times The Quran and certain number of Tasbeeh of Salawat. I wanted to know if this practice is correct as per our Marjas rulings, because we have read/ heard about Mahr being monetary in nature.

Salam, I am writing to ask if someone would be willing to run Ayatollah Jannati’s Resaleh through an OCR program that recognizes Farsi? Alternatively, can anyone tell me what it says on how a new month is determined, and (if it’s there) the time of virtue for the daily obligatory prayers. The link is here: http://www.jannaati.com/far/bank/resale.pdf thanks in advance for any help you can provide!

Most of the scholars like Ayatollah Sayyid Ali Sistani, Ayatollah al-Khoei and many other Sunni and Shia scholars believe and claim " Music " to be a strictly unlawful act in Islam. I want to know if there is any scholar or jurist who believes and claims "Music" to be lawful. Here, I meant by the word "scholar" is a " Twelver Marja' " or a " Sunni Grand Mufti ".

This is a reference post, as all this Basic information can be obtained on the Internet. https://www.al-islam.org/articles/taqlid-meaning-and-reality-sayyid-muhammad-rizvi https://www.al-islam.org/islamic-laws-ayatullah-abul-qasim-al-khui/taqlid Islamic Laws by Sayyid Abul Qasim al-Khu'i Sayyid Abulqasim al-Khui

I sometimes do it by acident and it's not far in the opposite direction, just a few centimetres like 2 or 3cm. Is this permissible during arm washing and face washing? Also, if it's a full unintentional opposite direction wipe , would this invalidate the wudhu? The reason I ask the second question is I am also trying to find out the delineation of an accident becoming a leeway during wudhu wiping Jazakallah I hope Allah makes things easy for you.

Although modern shia fiqh tends to prove friday prayer wajib, we read that in history of countries like Iran or Iraq, there were no institutions of that prayer before the 20th century and thethe Islamic awakening. That is an assertion made by M.A. Amir Moezzi for example. Is that true?

Marriage in the Shariah is not a sacrament. Stripped of all the cultural accretions Muslims have added on, and minus the obviously crucial elements of love and companionship, marriage is nothing more than — literally — a contract between a man and a woman in which the man provides the woman with financial support in return for exclusive sexual access. It’s a contract that makes sex and reproduction legal in the eyes of God and legitimate in the eyes of society. -Jonathan AC Brown I would imagine many of you are uneasy with the idea that marriage in Islam is nothing more than a contract in which sex is exchanged for financial support. I am certainly uneasy with this idea, for it seems to belittle the institution of marriage on the one hand, and on the other, it is not how the Qur'an describes marriage. For instance, in Surah 30:21, Allah swt describes marriage as a union involving tranquility, love and mercy. In Surah 2:187 marriage is described in terms of reciprocity. To be fair to Jonathan Brown, he does refer to the 'crucial elements of love of companionship', however these seemingly aren't crucial enough to define what marriage is. According to the above quote, in reality marriage in Islam is nothing more than a contract. Additional elements including love and merely that - additional, non-essential elements. I don't agree with that. At least, I think it doesn't do justice to the Islamic conception of marriage. There are at least 3 approaches we can take to the Islamic definition marriage. 1. Legal definition vs Complete Islamic definition The first approach is to distinguish between 2 types of definition. The first is the Shar'i definition of marriage, and the second is the Complete/Qur'anic definition of marriage. Both of these are valid definitions, but they are different. The first is the legal definition, and the second is the true Islamic definition. So, on the legal definition, marriage is nothing more than a contract in which sex is traded for financial support. But on the true Islamic definition, marriage is more than this. Islamically, marriage is a contract which also involves tranquility, mercy, love, and reciprocity. This account makes the word 'marriage' equivocal, i.e. it means two different things depending on whether you are talking is a purely legal context, or giving the true Islamic definition. A culinary example would be the word 'jelly' which means two different things depending on whether you are in the UK or the US. Both definitions are valid, but you have to specify the context. Why would there be 2 types of definitions? Well the Sharia is concerned with practical matters. There is a societal benefit in giving a simple legal definition of marriage, so that some of most harmful sexual relationships can be readily identified, and healthy relationships can be encouraged. This practical concern requires a level of pragmatism, which is reflected in simplified definitions of important Islamic practices. 2. Essential vs Non-essential elements The second approach is to distinguish between essential and non-essential features of marriage. On this account, there is only 1 definition of marriage, and marriage is defined in terms of essential and non-essential (additional) elements. The essential element would be the contract. The additional elements would be love, compassion and so on. These additional elements are desirable, and they perfect marriage, but these aren't essential to make marriage what it is. The word 'marriage' on this account is univocal - it means only 1 thing, in contrast to the account above. An example would be the definition of cake. Essentially a cake is a sponge, but it can also have other additional elements that improve it, such as icing, decoration, other toppings and so on. 3. Inward vs Outward aspects The third approach is to distinguish between the inward and the outward aspect to marriage. Outwardly, marriage is nothing more than a contract. However it would be wrong to say that this is all there is to marriage. Inwardly, marriage involves such things as love, mercy and so on. On this account there is also only 1 definition of marriage, but it has 2 aspects. We deal with each other based on the outward aspect, and so describe a couple as married if they meet the outward aspect of marriage. However if there is no love or mercy or tranquility, then they are lacking the inward aspect of marriage, and so aren't truly married. *** To further understand the differences between these 3 accounts, I will answer two different questions. (i) What is marriage (ii) If there is an Aqd (contract) is there a marriage? Answers: 1 (i) Depends on whether you are asking for the legal or Qur'anic/complete definition. Legally marriage is a contract, but the Qur'anic conception of marriage is more than this, and involves elements such as love and mercy. (ii) Legally yes there is a marriage, but devoid of these other elements it isn't a Qur'anic or Complete Islamic marriage 2 (i) Marriage is a contract. (ii) Yes 3 (i) Marriage consists of a outward and inward elements. (ii) Outwardly there is marriage, but devoid of inward elements, in reality there is no marriage. *** You can apply a similar approach to other Islamic practices, e.g. prayer. Prayer can be defined in terms of the Arkan/pillars of prayer mentioned in books of fiqh. But is it really prayer if it doesnt forbid evil? (Surah 29:45). Legally prayer is the Arkan, but the Qur'anic/Complete Islamic definition includes the important elements of spirituality. You could view the Arkan as essential, and the other elements as non-essential. You could say prayer has an inward and outward, and without both there is no prayer.

May Allah bless you and give you a good day I have some questions 1. When namaz, do we have an acceptable deviation of qibla if it is done intentionally, i saw on this forum somebody said that he heard from his shaykh it was 15 deg, Ay Khemenei said 5 deg (yet i am not his muqallid), it confuses me. My marja' said that if there was a deviation even if it is under 90 deg I should repeat my prayer, but he just said that I only have to follow the direction (jihat) of the Ka'ba, I mean, what is the differences between facing 'ayn Ka'ba and jihat Ka'ba if there is no deviation allowed, for you, did he really mean that the deviation should be 0 deg (which is either very hard or impossible to do, even my rug moves every time), or does it have some leniency, since for example, if one faces east direction/jihat (90 deg), it still can be called facing east even if the direction is 80 - 100 deg (of course, neither reaching south-east nor north-east)? 2. Does wavering or doubting in canceling (leaving) prayer make the prayer invalidated? 3. I heard from one youtube video that if you found the marja' who has the same knowledge level with your marja''s level, you can follow the fatwa of both marja's, does it mean that you could make taqleed to that two respective marja''s (in case of hardship, for example)?

A good article on Christmas that summarises the Fiqhi opinion of Sayyed Al-Sistani. Also, the article contains information regarding sending salam to the kitabi unbelievers. https://purifiedhousehold.com/salams-or-merry-christmas/

It seems a trend for many Muslims to easily labeling as haram on almost anything such as music, sports, driving, riding bicycles, movies, TV, INTERNET including youtube, etc. thus unnecessarily harming health, work and educational opportunities for many, especially for women. Such trend would be a catalyst for attacks on Islamic system as a whole from inside and out if left ignored. In going over how things are ruled as haram(prohibited), let us start with Quran as a source. Ayat can be muHkam or mutashabih. The muHkam /clear verse which can be ‘aam / general, khaas / specific, (amr and nahy)/(imperative and prohibitive), or mushtarak / collective. مشترك Amr(imperative) can be Fard (obligatory by clear textual dalil evidence) wajib(necessary by probable evidence), manduub(recommended), or mubaah(permissible/indifferent). Nahy can be haram or makruh(disliked). So haram ruling is derived from nahy type of MuHkam verse which is absolutely clear by its own. Thus, Quranic source of haram, makruh, mubaah, manduub, wajib or fard ruling is from muHkam verses. Since some of us are subjected to such rulings with real consequences with accompanying execution power of rewards or punishments by rulers, we all must understand the mechanism of the rulings. If the source of such ruling is only from hadith with vague wording with outdated situation, such as allowed traveling distance for women; is it OK to apply the lower standard in deriving hukum than from Quran? Please help me here by correcting me in any part, offering your knowledge in this area of Islamic jurisprudence. Thank you in advance.

Hi, I read that there is chapter of "Manners of Drinking Wine" in Shia scholar Nasir al-Din al-Tusi's book of Akhlaq-i Nasiri/The Nasirean Ethics. This chapter includes adab/manners/way of drinking, so Tusi expresses harms of alcoholic wine and he suggests moderation of drinking. In this book, this chapter is remarkable because of moderation of drinking. I wonder that, what is view of Tusi about alcoholic beverages? Also, is there any allowence of Shia sources about drinking alcoholic beverages in moderation? I know that there is allowence of moderate drinking of nabidh/drinks without wine in early Hanafi sources, also I read some of Mutazilah allows drinking alcoholic beverages includes wine in al-Mabsut by Imam Sarakhsi, however Sarakhsi as Hanafi scholar doesn't express their arguments about wine (Sarakhsi's view is Hanafi view, he allows moderate drinking of alcoholic beverages without wine). Do you know any allowence about drinking wine in Shia sources? And what is Tusi's view about this topic? Also, is this chapter about nabidh or wine?

Salaam, I just wanted to ask this question, seeing as how those muslims of the liberal persuasions love to invoke the bandwagon of "mansplaining". However, for a decent number of reasons I can see why there is no such thing as "mansplaining" in Islam. However, I would like input from you guys and gals on this issue and whether mansplaining is legitimate to any extent theologically, in a historical and contemporary orthodox sense. I appreciate input from both Sunnis and Shia's on this matter, as this issue does cross into both sects and I am curious about what Sunni Orthodoxy has to say on the matter of "mansplaining". Also I do appreciate input from both Christians and Jews on this topic as well. Though I do want to see an orthodox vantage point of "mansplaining" from Christianity and Judaism. Also, advice from those who are nonreligious or atheists/agnostics is also appreciated.

Salaam, I am an American Shia Muslim, raised Sunni. I learned about the Ahlul Bayt and read some more then came to the conclusion that to be the Shia of Ali was the right path. I only really know the surface levels of Shia Islamic practices, but just like the Sunni Madhabs, there is a lot of variance in opinion on several things. Ayatollah Sistanis website has been very helpful, and I tend to refer to his judgement for consistency, but is there anything in the west or online where one can get a foundation on Shia fiqh? (Since I live in America, going to Iraq or Iran really is not an option for now.)

Assalaamualeikom, I found my mujtahid taqleed do not have (or at least do not give) fatwa nor do give a precaution on particular matters in certain issue, meanwhile other a'lam mujtahid has a fatwa on that specific matter because he indeed has more fatwas on his risala. Here are the examples: 1. In my mujtahid risala, he does not mention if a mohr sticks to the forehead, one must put it back to the ground, or another saying that may indicate that specific act must or do not have to be done regarding to that matter, must I follow that verdict even if I am not in taqleed to the mujtahid that release that mohr fatwa in issue of ritual prayer? 2. Something are described as recommended acts (also in prayer) by other mujtahid, meanwhile my mujtahid taqleed has no mention to those things. Are those things is considered mustahabb for me? I need your advice, thanks a lot. Assalaamualeikom

Almost every Thursday night, my parents light a candle, bring some drinks (usually just milk mixed with rooh afza) and we recite Surah Al-Fatihah once followed by Surah Al-Ikhlas three times. We do this once for the 14 infallibles, and again for our deceased relatives. Then, we drink from the milk, and put out the candle. There are some variations to this, but this is usually what we do every Thursday night. My mother calls this "nazr". I have lots of questions about this. Firstly, why is it called "nazr"? Isn't this word based off the arabic word "nadhr", which means a vow? But it doesn't seem like we are making a vow. I have also heard that "nazr" in urdu means black magic, but looking online I can't find anything to confirm this. In fact, on this site it looks like it means a gift, or an offering. This seems more close to what we're doing, I guess we are offering the milk we're drinking as an offering? But to whom? Are we offering it to the 14 infallibles and our deceased relatives? I don't understand that, because it doesn't seem like offering the milk (which we later drink ourselves) would benefit them in any way. 13 of the 14 infallibles are deceased, and the one who is alive never appears to drink the milk. Therefore, it can't benefit them. The deceased relatives hence also cannot benefit from the milk. It then may follow from that that our gift is towards Allah. But Allah does not need our gift, because he is self-sufficient. So now I am confused what our gift is for, if we are using the urdu translation of "nazr". Also, what is the arabic term for this? If "nazr" is not the correct term, then what is? What exactly are we doing? I tried looking on Al-Islam.org but could not find any references to this practice. I guess I'm not really understanding the purpose behind the practice. One explanation could be that we are doing this to remember the 14 infallibles and our deceased relatives. But then why do we need the candle and the drinks? If someone could help clear these questions for me, that would be very helpful. Thanks in advance.