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Salaam everyone, I was actually wondering about a Shi'a girls stance on marriage. I mean, I was wondering if say a Shi'a girl says her consent to the marriage 3 times to the niqah, but her niyyah isn't for it, meaning she doesn't actually want to get married to this person, does the marriage still count? If she says yes outwardly, but no niyyah inside to say yes, and doesn't want to, but is being forced to say yes? Especially in the case that the girl does not plan to have any "relations" with this person after the forced marriage anyway. Btw, for that, say if the marriage is valid, is it necessary for the girl to do acts of marriage with this person? Or if she doesn't want to she doesn't have to? I would appreciate any rulings or any information that could be found on this. Jazakallah & FiAmanAllah
Salaam, A few weeks ago I read somewhere that one should specify in namaz whether it's an "a'da" or "qadha" prayer. Normally, my niyyat for prayers is as follows: I verbally or mentally say, "I pray ____ namaz, ___ rakats, wajib qurbatan ilallah", and if I need to pray qadha (sadly), I would just add the word "qadha" before the word "wajib". But now, I also add "a'da" before the word "wajib" for prayers that are being offered during the right time...Is this necessary when you know you're reading the namaz during the right time? Recently, I read some texts of past scholars such as Imam Khomeini that indicated that niyyat is just a natural and like an in-built phenomenon occurring before performing any voluntary action, and that it's impossible for any voluntary action to even occur without a niyyat (https://www.al-islam.org/adab-as-salat-disciplines-of-prayer-second-revised-edition-imam-khomeini/section-three-secret-niyyah#chapter-1-truth-niyyah-worship). Also, on Ayatollah Sistani's website it says that, "It is not, however, necessary that he should make the niyyat pass through his mind, or should, for example, utter: "I am offering four Rak'ats of Zuhr prayers Qurbatan ila-llah." ". I encourage you to visit the link Al-Islam.Org link I sent in this paragraph, the reading is not too long. Looking at this information, does this mean that one can just walk up to the musallah, instantly say the takbir, and then start the namaz??? If it's not possible to perform any voluntary action without niyyat, and if Ayatollah Sistani says that one doesn't need to pass it through his mind, then what even is niyyat? How is niyyat performed? Do I need to WILLFULLY try to perform the niyyat? If niyyat is a natural and automatic phenomenon, why are we always told to make sure to “do” niyyat, without niyyat namaz is void...etc ?. What does it mean to"do" it? Why is the importance of the “performance” of niyyat stressed so much, as if expecting us to make some conscious willful effort to do something...I don’t get what Ayatollah Sistani means by saying that it’s not necessary to pass it through your mind, how else do you do it then? It's always emphasized about how niyyat is an essential component of namaz, it is a rukn of namaz and all, and one can't pray without it. But how exactly is it done? (I know that when one is doing prayer, it shouldn't be to showoff or some other bad reason like that, it should be completely for the pleasure of Allah)... I think for now I’ll be sticking to the “verbal” or “conscious willful thought” approach to niyyat... If any knowledgeable brothers or sisters could explain and clarify this matter it would be great.
Salam I want to know if having more than one motive/Niyyat can be counted as good and for the sake of Allah. For example: Let's say I help a poor person by giving him some money, I have 3 motives behind doing this, 1. because I think God will increase my wealth if I give charity 2. Because God will be pleased with me if I give money this poor person and 3. because I feel it is a good act, therefore I am obliged to do it for the sake of its goodness. What is the status of having such motives? I know that we are supposed to do everything for the sake of God, and I accept that but sometimes it is impossible for me to restrict my thoughts to 1 motive. For example: I see a poor person, immediately I think God will be pleased with me if I help him, and so as I approach to help this person , in the mean time, different motives/thoughts appear in my mind which seem selfish and contractual e.g. God will reward me for this. Or I see a poor person and I feel sad for him because of his poverty and I help him because he is poor and I can help him, so I help him because he is poor and I do this good act only for the sake of its goodness, but then I remember God later on and remember that he is also pleased with me for such an act. Would such a Niyyat/intention/motive be counted as a righteous and "for God" type of Niyyat? I hope you understand what I am trying to say, I am not good at explaining my thoughts.
Also, if you are doing good randomly, without thinking of it and without remembering Allah, will Allah still reward you for that good act which is done at random? And, if you do a good act for the sake of pleasing Allah and helping someone, and you don't have any worldly benefits of that good act in mind and then you remember that this good act will please Allah and also benefit you in the future, is that still done for Allah or is it done for worldly benefits? For example, I am kind to my parents because I want to please Allah, then I also think that being kind to parents not only pleases Allah but also benefits me, and I do this good act, will it still be something I did for Allah or would it be that I did it for worldly gains? So I am nice to parents because of Sillah Rahm, and because they will help me in the future when I have financial problems, and I be nice with both of these in mind, does this mean I have done it for pleasing Allah? So please help answer if those niyyats (intentions) are counted for this world or Allah or both.
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