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In the Name of God بسم الله

Haydar Husayn

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Everything posted by Haydar Husayn

  1. (wasalam) Why would she confess, when she knows what the penalty for that is? How do we know a confession wasn't forced out of her? Did she confess on 4 seperate occasions, as required? If not, she has the right to recant her confession, does she not? Is any of the other evidence such as statements from the neighbours, confessions of the other men, and statements from her children, considered admissible in Islam in order to convict someone of adultery? If other evidence is going to be admitted, then it should be just as convincing as having four reliable witnesses, however 2 out of 5 of the judges supposedly didn't think she was guilty. It hardly sounds like the evidence was overwhelming. If she was involved in her husband's murder then she should be tried for that, not adultery. With regards to sparing her family any pain, I think it's a bit late for that. The story has already spread across the world. I think that if the family agree to the information being released, then it should be. In this case they have claimed that the conviction is obviously unfair, and have asked the leaders in Iran to have a look at her file. So I doubt there is anything there that they wouldn't want released.
  2. If they are still going to execute her, it makes little difference that it won't be by stoning, although of course the suffering will be much less. I wish Iran would just give an outline of the evidence against her, and why she was found guilty. As far as I'm concerned, if any other evidence is used other than 4 reliable male witnesses or a uncoerced confession, then this woman should not be sentenced to death. Does anyone here understand what this 'judge's knowledge' stuff is about? Has anyone ever read any ahadith were such a way of deciding someone's guilt for a similar crime was used?
  3. Personally I would agree with you, but I think these pictures have been allowed by most scholars haven't they? I'm not aware of any fatwas forbidding them.
  4. According to the Times of London, Iran have backed down over the stoning, but may still hang her. No other sources have reported this yet as far as I can tell. http://www.thetimes.co.uk/tto/news/
  5. Does that mean that if someone makes a picture of the 12 Imams(as) and represents them all as white or chinese, then you are fine with that? I don't think anyone should use the possbile race or colour of the Imams(as) for any kind of 'race war' purposes, of course not. However, I don't think such information should be suppressed either. Considering the racism that exists within some of our communities, I think it would be good for people to be more aware of the diverse origins of our Imams(as). It is also a good lesson for those who think that racial or cultural purity is something important(for example in relation to marriage).
  6. I never said it was a big deal. First of all, I don't think what the person did was that bad. I consider him to mainly be unlucky that these videos became public. Even if he had commited some major crime, I still won't use it to discredit anyone else other than him. I think it's just ridiculous to for anyone to use this minor incident to call into question Ayatollah Sistani's judgement. How is he supposed to know what kind of things a person does in private? Actually, you are right. I'm just assuming that making recordings for personal use isn't allowed. The reason I assume that is because isn't it essentially making pornography, which must be haram?
  7. I'm not sure I understand your point here brother. Could you elaborate?
  8. Miscarriages of justice can happen anywhere. Personally, I'm not so interested in whether she is innocent or guilty, but rather what kind of evidence the judges used to find her guilty. I've read that she is supposed to have confessed, but in that case wouldn't she still have the right to withdraw her confession? And anyway, if she claims she is innocent, why would she confess in the first place?I'm also curious as to why she is now being stoned if she has already been lashed for the same crime(as far as I understand it).
  9. As far as I can tell, the only thing he did wrong was to make the recordings.
  10. I don't know if it is that simple because Imam Mahdi(ajt) first asks Nabi Isa(as) to lead the prayers. It could be argued that this shows that Nabi Isa(as) is greater in stature. In any case, I don't think we should worry too much about it. I don't see what difference it makes to our faith, whoever is in fact greater in the eyes of Allah(swt). The most important thing is that we love and respect all of our beloved Prophets and Imams, and make sure we remember them all.
  11. This is what I have been trying to find out in another thead: Unfortunately nobody has yet been able to enlighten me on this topic. If the judge has complete discretion to take into account whatever evidence he feels like, then you might as well throw the conditions about 4 witnesses or a confession out the window. It would really be interesting to know exactly how much leeway the judge has in these cases.
  12. Thank you very much for directing me to that post. I will repost the rules here. http://www.al-islam.org/greater_sins_complete/15.htmGiven these conditions, I can't see how it is at all realistic to ever prosecute someone for adultery. You might get one or two exceptional cases where someone wants to confess of their own free will, but then you would have to wonder if they are sane. However, there is no guarantee that the Iranian laws about dealing with adultery coincide exactly with the Islamic ones. Maybe they feel like these laws are too restrictive, and they should have more leeway than this.
  13. Ok, thanks sister. What is the best way to ask a mod to move it there?
  14. I agree with you sister, but from what I posted above it seems like there is also seems to be some room for the judge to use his own judgement in these cases. I was hoping that someone here would be more familiar with how exactly that works, and could shed some light on it. It's pretty obvious that if the only ways to prove adultary are by having 4 righteous male witnesses who saw the act in extreme detail, or an uncoerced unretracted confession, then hardly anyone would ever be convicted. However, we hear many cases all over the muslim world, so it must be that there are some other ways that are allowed to prove these crimes.Mods, if this thread would be better located in a different forum, could you please move it there?
  15. Inna Lillahi wa ina ilayhi raji3oon Very sad news. Whether one agrees with his views or not, it can't be denied that he was an original thinker who offered many of us serious food for thought.
  16. Salam, This is my first post here, although I have been lurking on this great forum for several months. I wanted to ask about something that has confused me for a while now, but was once again brought to my mind by the following article: http://www.guardian.co.uk/world/2010/jul/02/iranian-woman-stoning-death-penalty. In the article it states A search on the internet reveals that article 105 of the Islamic Penal Code of Iran, in the section on punishment for adultery supposedly says http://www.wluml.org/node/3908I had first done a search on the official-looking http://mehr.org/Islamic_Penal_Code_of_Iran.pdf, however laws 103-107 were missing. Now, this law is supposed to mean(according to anti-stoning websites and the like) that in cases where 4 witnesses haven't been produced, and there is no confession, that the judge can nevertheless give a guilty verdict in an adultery case. Assuming all this is true, I would like to know how exactly this law is justified in Shia Fiqh? I had always previously assumed that although the Islamic punishment for adultery, and some other things such as sodomy, was very strict, that on the other hand it was very difficult to prove such crimes. For this reason I was always confused when I read reports in the Western media about stonings and other death sentences for adultary and sodomy. I would always wonder how it was possible that 4 witnesses could be found in such cases. However, taking into account this law about the judge's knowledge, this seems to make more sense. Something else I came across while looking into this, but for which I haven't been able to find a proper source is Surely this can't be true? Or if it is, can someone explain to me the reasoning?Sorry for the long post, and I hope someone can clear all this up for me.
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