Maisam Haider

If one is unmarried and feels the urge (like the opening post is asking), the only thing he can do is the quick-fix. The source of the issue may be different, but the requirement of the moment is the quick-fix, which is something unmarried people have to master.

If Buddhist monks, Hindu pundits, Christian priests are able to live their entire lives as celibates, then unmarried Muslims should also have the ability to be like celibates before Allah blesses them with marriage. Islam is completely against celibacy and highly encourages marriage. But if someone is unmarried, then he is practically required to be similar to celibates. The intention is different but the practicality is same. One has to kill the sexual desire just like the celibates do. The way to do that as advised by the Prophet (s) is fasting. Hadith says fasting is the celibacy of Islam.

If an unmarried person feels that marriage is the only way for him to avoid sin, but he is unable to get married, would he be permitted to sin? If not, then it means his original feeling that marriage was the only way to avoid sin is not valid. Islam tells us there are two ways to avoid sin: either marriage or patience. So, are unmarried people even allowed to think that patience is not an option for them and marriage is the only option?

If the only way that a man can achieve erection is also a haram way, then could it mean that sometimes a man's test of sexual patience is meant to continue after marriage as well. Even though a husband and wife are allowed any form of pleasure, sometimes the only way they can do it maybe haram. In that case, should one partner perform an act which is haram for himself so as to fulfill the sexual rights of the other partner or should one protect himself from a haram act even if that means ignoring the sexual rights of the other partner...what takes preference ? It is not compulsory for a man to have sex after marriage but it is compulsory to avoid anything which is forbidden, so if sex after marriage itself becomes haram in certain way for the husband but not for the wife, should the husband avoid sex indefinitely for as long as he lives..... Or should he have sex once in 4 months so as to do minimum sin and at the same time fulfill the rights of the wife?

Salam This question is regarding using foreign object during sexual intimacy. Using any form of object for sexual gratification apart from the spouse's body is forbidden. However, using condom is allowed as it does not cause any pleasure in its self - it is not considered as a foreign object. However nowadays certain new condoms are designed in such a way that they have ridges in them and have special features to enhance sensitivity. If a person uses such condoms and it gives him even greater pleasure than he would get without the condom, would the condom then be considered as a foreign object and thus forbidden for use?

Yes, the desire is not absolutely impossible but to act on this desire before marriage is absolutely impossible in Islam and will be considered a transgression against Allah. That means just like an angel does not indulge in any sexual act, similarly any Muslim who is unmarried is also required to be like an angel I.e., he must not engage in any sexual act at all. He should be just as away from sexual gratification as are the angels, until he/she is able to get married. That's why a chaste unmarried Muslim has the potential to be superior to angels, as he is required to lead an unmarried life completely devoid of any sexual pleasure despite having the natural urge. I'm not saying every unmarried Muslim can be like that, and we all sin and Allah forgives those who repent - however the goal of unmarried life should be to attain sexual abstinence similar to angels. Our Imams were like that - when given the opportunity to sin whilst in prison, they acted as if their sexual desire did not even exist (like angels). Just like celibates live their entire lives without any sexual pleasures, unmarried Muslims have to do the same. This premarital celibacy is obligatory in Islam and this makes the chaste people superior to angels.

BBC News - Saudi Arabia to open up to foreign tourists with new visas https://www.bbc.co.United Kingdom/news/business-49848068 Madain Saleh

If a person travels to a nearby town and the distance is 8 farsakh or more, but the town is considered so near to his home town that a person moving between the two towns will not usually be considered a traveler, then he cannot shorten his prayer. The question is that if this is a vague situation where some people would label him as a traveler and others would not, then how should he decide whether he needs to read full or short?

Yes, mustahab.

The body should be still while reciting Takbeer (I believe out of respect of Allah Talla). ". after each sajdah, when one sits and his body is still, he should say takbīr;" https://www.Sistani.org/english/book/48/2226/

Ws. From Sharia perspective, if the wife doesn't provide conjugal rights to her husband, she will not be entitled to "nafaqa". The husband is obligated to provide maintenance only if the wife fulfills the husband's rights. If there is a mutual understanding that after nikah the couple will not live together for a certain period of time, then husband can still provide for the wife as a sign of love and humbleness, but not as a legal Islamic requirement. You might want to check with the marja for the exact rule but this is what I understand.

Bismillah Salam alikum Is it permissible to visit archeological sites such as Petra and Pompeii considering these were most probably places which were destroyed by Allah due to the disbelief and Lewed actions of their inhabitants? I heard that Prophet Muhammad (s) discouraged people from visiting Madain Saleh in Arabia as this was a place where Allah's curse was sent. Has anyone here visited Petra, Pompeii or Madain Saleh?

Salam alikum After more than two months, I have received another reply from a different office of Ayt. Sistani which confirms the first reply: A Sunni friend invited me for iftar and then requested me to also join him for taraweeh prayer at his mosque. I tried to decline his offer but he insisted so much that I had to accompany him unwillingly. Although I stood in the congregation, I did my own niyyut and read a fourada prayer. I left as soon as it was possible for me. My question is whether my action of joining taraweeh in this situation would be considered a sin. If yes, is there any specific kaffara for this, apart from asking forgiveness from Allah? یک دوست سنی برای افطار مرا دعوت کرد و بعد از من خواست با آن ها نماز تراویح بخوانم. من ابتدا عذرخواهی کردم ولی او خیلی اصرار کرد و در نهایت من همراه آن ها نماز خواندم ولی نیتم نماز فرادی بود. آیا گناهی مرتکب شده ام؟ اگر بله آیا کفاره لازم است؟ In the Name of God, the Most High اشکال ندارد. There is no problem in it. May Allah grant you success. www.Sistani.org Board of Istifta - Office of His Eminence, Al-Sayyid Ali Al-Sistani

The reply from Syed Sistani's office is for United Kingdom, not Malaysia. There is no problem in reading your own prayer in taraweeh congregation in United Kingdom without doing any Taqqiyah. Some Shias will find this concept hard to digest.

Salam. Nobody here denies that Taraweeh is biddah. This is not the point of the topic at all. The question is about "fourada intention" and now we know there is no problem in this, contrary to what everyone here was assuming. Ofcourse, it doesn't mean that it is recommended but the important point is that it is not forbidden.