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In the Name of God بسم الله

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  1. So they banned you??

    Well, IF you can still somehow log on and read this:

    I'm glad they did. Now you can stop wasting your time here and devote your time to ourbeacon :-).

    Please write to me soon.

    Ciao.

  2. Don't misquote me. I never said that those who know classical Arabic = those who are firmly rooted in knowledge. What I said was that the Quran is not a mystical text. What I said was that knowledge of classical Arabic, is a tool that can help us crack the meaning of some words which appear strange to us today. It doesn't take a supra-genious to realize which verses are metaphorical and which verses are to be understood literally. The "MUHKAM" (governing) verses, which deal with laws (halal, haram, ettiquette, 10 commandments, marriage , divorce, orphans, contracts, wisdom ,etc...) are
  3. There it is: Undisputable proof that the Muslims do not worship God, but worship men (their muhadditheen) instead. Even if they read a hadith which blatantly calls for the worship of Satan, they will still claim it's true based on the "isnad" only. They don't care what the hadith itself says ( Why bother to read and analyse? Why bother to use our brains at all??) As long as it is in Bukhary, then it is true (Follow our muhadditheen and clergy like hypnotized sheep). The Quran says: æíÓÁáæäß Úä ÇáãÍíÖ Þá åæ ÃÐì ÝÇÚÊÒáæÇ ÇáäÓÇÁ Ýí ÇáãÍíÖ æáÇ ÊÞÑÈæåä ÍÊì íØåÑä ÝÅÐÇ ÊØåÑä ÝÃÊæåä ãä ÍíË ÃãÑßã Ç
  4. Tell me, where in the Quran, does it exclusively say that the "ones who are firmly rooted in knowledge" are 14 infallible descendants of the Prophet, mentioned by name? Furthermore, do you even know what these allegorical verses are?? In the Quran, they are called "Mutashabih verses", and they constitute no more than 10% of the whole Quran. These verses are metaphoric and not be interpreted literally. It pains me to say it, but this, I'm afraid, is a testament of your ignorance and your shirk (idol worship). I am relying on the Quran itself, to prove that, and not on hearsay and word of
  5. The so-called "Islamic" months have nothing to do with Islam whatsoever. They were known since pre-Islamic Arabia. Moreso, the Arabs gave these months names to fit with natural phenomena observed in the wilderness. Also, the months were luni-solar, and coincided with the seasons. (Not like they are today). For example: - 'Rabee-al-Awwal/Thani' = first spring/second spring - 'Safar' "ÕÝÑ" = month named so due to the "yellowness color" of nature at that time of the year - 'Sha'aban' "ÔÚÈÇä" = word derived from "ÔÚÈ" and " ÊÔÚÈ" which means to "split up". It was called so because the noma
  6. Yes, I understand. And how do you know the actions of the Prophet - APART FROM VERBAL TRADITIONS?- Do you have archived records or videotapes dating back to 7th Century Arabia showing you what his actions were? Or are you merely relying on conjecture and word-of-mouth hearsay to determine what he did? How do you know, for certain, the actions of the Prophet who lived 1,500 years ago? Answer: Look in the Quran I am sorry, but I do not believe we need 14 perfect and infallible beings (who are no longer with us), to explain God's words. Every human being was given a brain, and can read the
  7. The Sunni who is asking you to provide hadiths showing the details of the ritual salat obviously has zero knowledge about what is in his/her hadith books. I once posted a thread defying all of you (Sunnis + Shias) to show me where, in the hadith books, are the following details found: - How many "raka'at" for each "Salat" - What duas to say in each "raka'a" - Where to place the hands. - How to bow and prostrate -etc.. And I am still awaiting your answer. When the sectarians engage in their futile debates with us, and find themselves cornered, they will always resort to this question. It is li
  8. Can you please quote the chapter and verse? Thank you.
  9. Your argument makes no sense. "Muhamad" is a PROPER noun. You cannot translate a proper noun, even if it might have a meaning. For example: The female proper noun "Dawn" literally means "early morning". If I am translating an English text into Arabic, I will certainly not translate the name "Dawn" into the Arabic "ÝÌÑ" , because "Dawn" is a proper name". Now answer this question: Is the word "imam" which appears in the Quran a proper noun also , that you may kep it as it is without translating it?? "Imam" is a common noun, which, according to the context of the verse, simply means "leade
  10. And who told you that Sulayman was not a prophet?? If Sulayman was not a prophet, then why is he mentioned in the Chapter number 21 of the Quran, whose title is "THE PROPHETS" ?? All prophets are, by default, Imams. The word "Imam" means "leader/guide". Therefore, all prophets are "Imams" because they lead by example. Furthermore, why is it that you always keep the word "Imam" untranslated when you quote Quranic verses in English?? Is it because you wish to surround the word with an aura of mysticism in order to prove your theory of "Imamat"?? Whoever claimed that Solomon was not a prophet
  11. Subhanallah!! Now you are saying that we must read the Quran in context and not take each verse by itself???? How about if I showed you no less than 50 seperate and enumerated examples of how the Shias and Sunnis take verses out of their contexts to prove their points?? As I can see, you need a lesson in Arabic, because 1) The verb "ÊÙåÑæä" does NOT mean "at noon time" The prophet is telling the faithful to offer praises to Allah when THEY (THE FAITHFUL) "tazhharoon". If you want to know what the word means, take a look at the following verses (since you are so fond of pointing out to
  12. I believe I can help you here, my friend :) Of course, the Quran does not contradict itself. And of course it doesn't abrogate itself either - contrary to what most people think. (though it does abbrogate EARLIER scriptures). The verses that talk about intoxicants (like alcohol) are COMPLEMENTARY to each other. They do not abbrogate each other. I know I will probably get flamed, sworn at, insulted , accused of interpreting the Quran according to my whims, labeled as being a devil-worshipper, etc..etc... So, I will not trouble myself by writing anything. I will simply cut and paste a resp
  13. I know that Noah came before Abraham (chronologically speaking), but the thing is that Noah's understanding of the "hanifia" was too primitive. This is why the names of "al-haneef" and "father of muslims" were given to Abraham. This is why God told Muhamad to follow the creed of Abraham (eventhough Noah did come before). The law that all things in the universe evolve towards their destruction /end except GOD was first understood by Abraham, and that is Quranic fact. Sorry to say this, but there were NO human prophets before Noah. Noah was the very first. And before you rush to attack me again
  14. Do you need a scholar to understand this verse??? As another member said, and as I will say for the 1000th time, you CANNOT understand the verses of the Quran seperately, by taking them out of their context. Yo uhave to read the verses immediately before and after the verse in question in order to get a better understanding of what is being said. in the verse 6:75, we notice that the word THUS " ßÐáß" appears. This word connects 6:75 with the verses directly after it. (STICK TO THE CONTEXT) How was Abraham shown the kingdom of the heavens and the Earth??? Read the verses directly after i
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