Jump to content
Guests can now reply in ALL forum topics (No registration required!) ×
Guests can now reply in ALL forum topics (No registration required!)
In the Name of God بسم الله


Basic Members
  • Posts

  • Joined

  • Last visited

Profile Information

  • Religion
    Shia Islam

Recent Profile Visitors

53 profile views

acls's Achievements

  1. Also are opiates used for pain khamr because at high doses it makes you sleep and loopy? It can cause CNS depression like wine but it is not the same in effects if you study it. What does muskir mean? Do opiates cause that or not?
  2. Can someone explain why 2% ethanol is allowed? Why is that amount of ethanol (like in leavened bread or ripe fruits) not khamr? Why is hand sanitizer not khamr and najis when there are instances of people using hand sanitizer to get drunk? I have spoken to some bakers as well and they have told me that in the baking process when they add yeast, they now add it all at once so that they don't have to wait several hours to days for the bread to leaven like in the past. They said that by adding yeast to this bread in this fashion it is likely the ethanol content goes past 2% to around 5-8% or so but then the amount of ethanol kills some of the yeast and the ethanol dissipates because of heat. If that is the case does that mean the bread has become najis when it gets to that amount because if eaten at that point it is possible to become intoxicated on it if one eats a lot of that bread at that moment in time in production? So if it is then najis at that point does that mean the bread continues to stay najis? I am just confused because of the hadith from Imam Jafar al-Sadiq (a) and Imam Ali (a) that the things which in "large quantities to consume even small amount is haram" and about emptying well even if drop of khamr is in it. So is it OK to eat this leavened bread, wear the perfumes with ethanol, use hand sanitizer with ethanol, eat fruits with ethanol? Why is 2% the cutoff? Also if someone has a condition like autobrewery syndrome or perhaps an impairment to breakdown ethanol by the CYP or peroxisome because of a disease, a medication, or their genetics, does that mean they need to be below 2% cutoff? How would they know if it is a genetic thing? Let's say they eat a bread and for them if they consumed an amount which is possible it could theoretically cause drunkenness but they consume the bread in a small amount so it does not cause intoxication and of course the niyyat of eating the bread is not for intoxication and the person does not even know that their genetics (which dictates how their peroxisome and mitochondria and enzymes break down ethanol and other OH alcohols) is slower compared to others so these chemical alcohols can build up and potentially cause intoxication at that amount which is below 2%? Please explain it to me so I can understand. Thank you. Jazak Allah khayran
  3. Sorry for the bluntness about this topic but I need confirmation from the understanding of others to make sure that this is right or if I need to do something. Please don't read further if you are squeamish or young. Thank you for the understanding. I have been having an issue where when I do not have a nocturnal emission for a few days also have been constipated or with hardened stool and then go to the toilet and am able to defecate, I sometimes produce a sort of thick, white sticky fluid which I believe is coming from my prostate. Sometimes it is thicker and looks like semen and other times it is more thin but still white and sticky. I am unsure what it means for the body to "slacken" because I do feel relaxed but I think it's because of finishing going to the toilet after being constipated. This fluid comes out sort of like a falling and dripping liquid out of my flaccid penis, so it does not gush out/ejaculates and does not come out while I am lustful. So based on this https://www.sistani.org/english/book/49/2397/ from Sayyid al-Sistani: I tried to make sense of what this means but I am unsure if I am relaxing or not because of being relieved from constipation. But since I did not have sexual desire or ejaculation it's not semen then right? Does that mean the fluid is "wady" as described in the link below? https://en.wikishia.net/view/Semen Also this link states: Also the above says that semen in prostatosis/chronic prostatitis counts as tahir. Is there a reference for this from ahadith or scholars? If that's the case does this fluid fall under that when it looks more like semen? Or is this fluid not semen at all and just prostate fluid or wady? And just to clarify madhy is pre-seminal fluid right? I don't know about wadhy as I am unmarried. I assume that's fluid that comes out dripping after the gushing out of semen? After this fluid comes out, should I just do istibra and wash (this is what I have been doing for the times I have done it)? Is it required to do ghusl? Does this break a fast for example? I am once again sorry for the bluntness but I just need someone to confirm these things as I understand them as I feel like Shaytan is giving me some waswasa right now. I feel embarrassed to ask but I need confirmation to still my heart and also to have more comprehension because this has confused me before when I read fiqh books. Thank you for understanding. Jazak Allah khayran
  • Create New...