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In the Name of God بسم الله


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  1. Hence the reason I haven't posted in weeks, and will eventually 'do a Ron'. Then they can argue between themselves, and find that when no Christians are left on this site, they can move onto the Shia/Sunii forum for their fix.
  2. It seems we're getting to serious on here of late, so here is a cool effect that is very impressive. http://www.patmedia.net/marklevinson/cool/cool_illusion.html Spooky!
  3. Embarassed for you! Howmany times must you be told that it is an acknowledged and proven fake... even the majority of Muslims accept that fact.
  4. What did Lot prophesize? And Adam? You also consider them prophets.. as well as a whole bunch of others that didn't make a single prophecy. Jesus didn't come to prophesize, but to lay down his life for us all. Don't miss the free gift you have been given.
  5. I have always understood, but it seems that there is no concensus between people here as to what the Injeel is. I recall Ali Zaki asking a member to have the courtesy to learn the facts, when the member equated the N.T with the Injeel. He was quickly 'put in his place', and told they weren't the same thing. Others, however, say something else. Does your statement above confirm that your belief is that the Injeel and N.T are the same? (However 'corrupted' you claim it has become)
  6. Fair enough. I just have to keep mentioning this when it is used as 'evidence', or used to disprove the Gospel.
  7. That fish picture is a great way to avoid questions you can't answer...
  8. The Bible speaks from a Spiritual perspective, and from a physical perspective. The reference to David is a spiritual reference, in the sense that he was 'special' in the eyes of God. Christ was the PHYSICAL begotten son, backed up by the fact that he didn't have an earthly father.. (PLEASE, PLEASE, PLEASE nobody say 'What about Adam' or I will Shout!!! :P )
  9. The Quran seems to say a lot, yet offers no proof. What happened to the Injeel? Why would the Quran ask people to observe a book that wasn't even available at the time? How could people 'observe' it? It just doesn't add up. Ali (or anyone), can you provide a SINGLE piece of evidence (apart from the reference in the Quran, which I have commented on above) to back up the claim that there was ever an INJEEL? Thanks.
  11. As an intellectual, would you say that saying this, having zero proof of an Injeel, no fragments, copies, the slightest references or indication that one was ever given to Jesus is logical? I have yet to see any muslim (or historian), offer any proof of any Injeel. On this basis, we have to conclude that it IS referring to the Torah and New Testament, in which case the polemic question raised by Placid still stands.
  12. Really? Where did you get Judas from? Reference please, or is it conjecture?
  13. So you agree with me in post 50 100%....
  14. You've added this to your earlier definition in post #47. Also, "This is why we say that all prophets were Muslims, even before the Prophet Mohammad, because they submitted themselves to Allah (s.w.a.) alone" This implies that the definition of a Muslim has changed from the early days, to after Mohammed. This doesn't match up. Were the Jews in fact muslims (back them), because they submitted to the will of God, as per your definition. (Mohammed hadn't been born for them to recognize him as a prophet)
  15. By your definiton, the Jews are in fact Muslim.
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