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While you wait for a human to respond here is what GPT4 says (I used your query as the prompt, in an existing conversation about the Qur'an): The verses in question are: 1. Surah 21:91 (Anbiya):         وَالَّتِي أَحْصَنَتْ فَرْجَهَا فَنَفَخْنَا فِيهَا مِن رُّوحِنَا وَجَعَلْنَاهَا وَابْنَهَا آيَةً لِّلْعَالَمِينَ        Translation: And she who guarded her chastity, so We breathed into her of Our Spirit and made her and her son a sign for the worlds. 2. Surah 66:12 (Tahrim):        وَمَرْيَمَ ابْنَتَ عِمْرَانَ الَّتِي أَحْصَنَتْ فَرْجَهَا فَنَفَخْنَا فِيهِ مِن رُّوحِنَا وَصَدَّقَتْ بِكَلِمَاتِ رَبِّهَا وَكُتُبِهِ وَكَانَتْ مِنَ الْقَانِتِينَ        Translation: And Mary, the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity, so We breathed into her of Our Spirit, and she believed in the words of her Lord and His scriptures, and she was of the devoutly obedient. The preposition "في" (fee) in these verses is translated as "into" in English. It is used to describe the action of God breathing "into" Mary of His Spirit.  Regarding the difference in gender between "فِيهَا" (feeha - feminine) in Surah 21:91 and "فِيهِ" (feehi - masculine) in Surah 66:12, it's due to the grammatical gender of the nouns they are referring to. In Arabic, the pronouns must match the grammatical gender of the nouns they refer to.  In Surah 21:91, "فِيهَا" refers to "الَّتِي" (the female who), which is feminine, thus the feminine pronoun "هَا" is used. In Surah 66:12, "فِيهِ" refers to "فَرْجَهَا" (her chastity), which is considered masculine, thus the masculine pronoun "هِ" is used. This nuanced difference in pronoun gender between the two verses is a result of the precise grammatical structure in Arabic, where pronouns must agree in gender with the nouns they refer to.

You sure about this? https://www.fnoor.com/main/articles.aspx?article_no=32579  

Salam! Please start another topic if you want to go into detail about other topics! If I am interested and have time I will take part Inshallah. Not really interested in going into detail of other topics here. The verse firstly shows that the majority are good hence the general praise. As for you not understanding the word "min" read this article https://islamqa.info/ar/answers/263410/يسال-عن-معنى-منهم-في-قوله-تعالى-وعد-الله-الذين-امنوا-وعملوا-الصالحات-منهم-مغفرة All of the companions on both sides add up to around 30. Claiming someone broke Ijma' isn't a proper answer? Ar-Razi in general rarely goes into detail to refute people. His books weren't written for your average person who needs to be spoon fed. Hence scholars like Ibn Hajr used this point against him. I could easily add more to his answer. For example the word "Nafs" is used for both the Prophet and the Christians. Yet the Shia person claimed that it can never mean "bring yourself" in this context after using the word "call upon". The problem: Did the Christians bring someone as their "nafs"? It is in reality this is a linguistic claim with no evidence that contradicts the story. Including Aqeel who went with Muawiyah? Imam Hassan who pledged allegiance to Muawiyah? Of course the Shias claim it is a peace treaty even though Shia hadiths call it a pledge of allegiance. What kind of peace treaty gives the other person all your land and authority and in return you get relatively nothing? Furthermore, some of the people who insulted Hassan for this "peace treaty" are loved by Shias until this day. Shias double standards when it comes to the fitnah are many.

Rules-based order   https://twitter.com/RnaudBertrand/status/1705923432029077764  

Those who follow Quran and Ahl albayat ie Imams (عليه السلام) from the progeny of the prophet  remain steadfast with truth. I admire your words in the light of hadith Thqalyn and verses of the quran praising Ahl alabayt (عليه السلام). wasalam