Posted 23 January 2009 - 10:43 PM
As you can see i am a new member and although i have used the search engine in order to get an answer to my question, i still feel i'm left a lil confused so any advice would be helpful.
I would like to know wether ghusl janabat becomes obligotary if a woman, during or after sexual intercourse does not orgasm. I have asked many fellow women who like myslef are married, but have received some differnt views.
I have ofcourse read that Ayatollah Sistani says that the ghusl is wajib upon a woman after sexual intercourse but some say this only applies if she orgasms. So right now im not quite sure what to do, and i would like people to please help me out.
I hope i have posted this in the correct forum so i apologise in advance if not.
Posted 25 January 2009 - 01:40 AM
Thanks for asking this Shia thats it - I have wondered about the specifics of this as well. According to Sistani (via the link posted by Simba), one must perform ghusl on two conditions: 1. intercourse and/or 2. discharge of semen. I'm wondering what exactly #2 means for women, as discharge is different from orgasm, and women don't have semen as men do. If a woman has an orgasm without intercourse, does she have to perform ghusl?
Posted 27 January 2009 - 10:14 AM
355. If a person has sexual intercourse with a woman and the male organ enters either of the private parts of the woman up to the point of circumcision or more, both of them enter Janabat, regardless of whether they are adults or minors and whether ejaculation takes place or not
Edited by Shia & Proud, 27 January 2009 - 10:30 AM.
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