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When Shia try to explain the concept of infallibility they relate it directly to the second half of this verse:
"And abide in your houses and do not display yourselves as [was] the display of the former times of ignorance. And establish prayer and give zakah and obey Allah and His Messenger. Allah intends only to remove from you the impurity [of sin], O people of the [Prophet's] household, and to purify you with [extensive] purification." 33:33
Then they link it to this SAHIH hadith - Hadith Al Kisa:
Narrated by 'Aisha : “ that God's Apostle (may peace be upon him) went out one morning wearing a striped cloak of the black camel's hair that there came Hasan b. 'Ali. He wrapped him under it, then came Husain and he wrapped him under it along with the other one (Hasan). Then came Fatima and he took her under it, then came 'Ali and he also took him under it and then said: God only desires to take away any uncleanliness from you, O people of the household, and purify you (thorough purifying)" ”
IF, we assume that this verse meant to make them infallible.
It clearly indicates that only those AhlulBayt members mentioned in the HADITH are infallible. Right?
Question: How did Shia scholars link infallibility to 12 imams? While 9 of the 12 were not present in the Kisa and the verse did not target them.
P.S. Please do not reply with the Hadith of the 12 Amirs or Khaliphs from Qurayesh, as it clearly did not mention infallability or knowledge of those leaders.