See the following post on how divine foreknowledge does not necessitate fatalism:
http://atheismproble...-free-will.html
Edited by Hannibal, 01 July 2012 - 07:32 PM.
Posted 01 July 2012 - 07:29 PM
Edited by Hannibal, 01 July 2012 - 07:32 PM.
Posted 01 July 2012 - 08:11 PM
Salam,
See the following post on how divine foreknowledge does not necessitate fatalism:
http://atheismproble...-free-will.html
Edited by Belial, 01 July 2012 - 08:34 PM.
Posted 01 July 2012 - 10:26 PM
if we were truly to accept that we have no free will and that all of our actions are predetermined, then why should people be punished in the Afterlife for actions/sins/crimes they ultimately did not?
Edited by Ugly Jinn, 01 July 2012 - 10:34 PM.
Posted 02 July 2012 - 07:43 AM
Salam,
See the following post on how divine foreknowledge does not necessitate fatalism:
http://atheismproble...-free-will.html
Edited by Quisant, 02 July 2012 - 07:45 AM.
Posted 02 July 2012 - 01:17 PM
شبعا، هونين، ابل القمح، قدس، المالكية، تربيخا، صلحا، النبي يوشع - القدس
SHAME on the those who exploit the tragedy of Her Majesty Fatimah Al-Zahraa'Posted 02 July 2012 - 03:46 PM
Edited by Shia_Debater, 02 July 2012 - 03:47 PM.
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Posted 02 July 2012 - 05:20 PM
The question here boils down to, if God did not have knowledge of every single action that is going to take place, would we still end up making those same decisions? The answer is yes
Edited by Ugly Jinn, 02 July 2012 - 05:21 PM.
Posted 02 July 2012 - 05:54 PM
Yes and no. There is an issue with divine intervention. Is free will really 'free' if God can intervene? And the concept of 'divine intervention' exists in practically every religion, there is no deistic influenced religion (not that I know of).
My original question was, ""Is my will really free if it's not free from anyone knowing?"
So I'll add another component to my question above, "Is my will really free if it's not free from divine intervention?"
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Posted 02 July 2012 - 07:01 PM
Still unsure why people can't, or won't, grasp the concept "The-One knows what you will choose". What is 'pre-determined' is by your own making. Your will is free to choose what has been determined.
zis iz very zimple to underztand.
Edited by Belial, 02 July 2012 - 07:03 PM.
Posted 03 July 2012 - 05:22 PM
Belial
I don't know - people have been arguing about it for long
Therefore,
nobody knows.
I hope this is not how scientific argument proceeds. For science's sake, as well as the reputation of accomplished scientists.
Edited by Belial, 03 July 2012 - 05:24 PM.
Posted 03 July 2012 - 06:49 PM
Edited by eThErEaL, 03 July 2012 - 06:52 PM.
Posted 03 July 2012 - 07:37 PM
Edited by Dante Alighieri, 03 July 2012 - 07:39 PM.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 10:39 AM
^ Its a problem if you believe everything exists in linear time. But for consciousness not attached to matter, time can be not linear. If everything is happening all at once, then everything can be 'known'.
Right?
Posted 04 July 2012 - 03:31 PM
Posted 04 July 2012 - 08:13 PM
but what is scientific is recognition of a lack of evidence for the religious side of the debate.
And that, we should both be able to agree on.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 08:36 PM
Belial
Why should we agree? You haven't argued the point. There is no premise upon which we agree which entails this conclusion. So why should you expect agreement?
Edited by Belial, 04 July 2012 - 08:50 PM.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 09:15 PM
Posted 04 July 2012 - 09:22 PM
Belial
If I asked you for scientific evidence that it's impossible for a triangle's inner angles to add up to 180 degrees, what could you provide?
Nothing could be provided by you.
-----
Thus, in a conceptual question no scientific evidence is required. This is a question on whether the concept of omniscience excludes the concept of free-will. No scientific evidence is required.
Edited by Belial, 04 July 2012 - 09:24 PM.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 09:28 PM
Beyond that, having conceptual arguments based on physical reality, should help an argument.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 09:37 PM
Belial
[b]
It makes no sense to even talk of there being or not being scientific evidence. It's not that Pythagoras had no scientific evidence for his theorem. It was that his theorem was not one which needed scientific evidence.
A concept is not divorced from reality. However, it is the content of the concept that is of significance, not the actual real counterpart (if there is any).
When people talk about Omniscience and Free Will, they talk of concepts - obviously they intend them to have meaning. The question is, what meaning do these concepts contain? Do they exclude one another?
Edited by Belial, 04 July 2012 - 09:59 PM.
Posted 04 July 2012 - 10:06 PM
Edited by Belial, 04 July 2012 - 10:08 PM.
Posted 05 July 2012 - 02:24 AM
Hi there,
Well, its not something i know very much about, just heard people talk about. How do you mean 'consciousness is a process'?
If 'time necessitates materiality', doesnt that mean time doesnt exist for anything attached to matter? at least in the linear sense we're used to percieving it?
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